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NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to measure the effectiveness of security controls on a perimeter network?
- A. Implement network intrusion prevention systems
- B. Perform a vulnerability scan of the network
- C. Internal Firewall ruleset reviews
- D. External penetration testing by a qualified third party
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION # 40
The process to evaluate the technical and non-technical security controls of an IT system to validate that a given design and implementation meet a specific set of security requirements is called
- A. Security certification
- B. Security system analysis
- C. Alignment with business practices and goals.
- D. Security accreditation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Definition of Security CertificationSecurity certification is the systematic process of evaluating technical and non-technical security controls to ensure that an IT system meets specified security requirements. This process is a key step in validating the security posture of a system before deployment.
Purpose and Scope
* Technical Controls: Includes encryption, firewalls, access control mechanisms, etc.
* Non-Technical Controls: Policies, procedures, and organizational standards.
* Certification ensures that the implementation aligns with security frameworks and regulations.
Comparison of Options
* B. Security system analysis: A broader term for examining IT systems, not specifically tied to security requirement validation.
* C. Security accreditation: Focuses on management approval, which follows certification.
* D. Alignment with business practices and goals: Pertains to strategic alignment, not security validation.
EC-Council References
* Security certification aligns with phases of system development life cycles (SDLC) and is critical for ensuring compliance and risk management as per EC-Council CISO training.
NEW QUESTION # 41
What should an organization do to ensure that they have a sound Business Continuity (BC) Plan?
- A. Outsource the creation and execution of the BC plan to a third party vendor
- B. Conduct periodic tabletop exercises to refine the BC plan
- C. Conduct a Disaster Recovery (DR) exercise every year to test the plan
- D. Test every three years to ensure that things work as planned
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful project?
- A. it meets most of the specifications as outlined in the approved project definition
- B. it is completed on time or early as compared to the baseline project plan
- C. the deliverables are accepted by the key stakeholders
- D. it comes in at or below the expenditures planned for in the baseline budget
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 43
During the course of a risk analysis your IT auditor identified threats and potential impacts. Next, your IT auditor should:
- A. Identify and evaluate the existing controls.
- B. Identify and assess the risk assessment process used by management.
- C. Identify information assets and the underlying systems.
- D. Disclose the threats and impacts to management.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 44
An application vulnerability assessment has identified a security flaw in an application. This is a flaw that was previously identified and remediated on a prior release of the application. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for this recurring issue?
- A. Lack of change management controls
- B. Lack of version/source controls
- C. Ineffective configuration management controls
- D. High turnover in the application development department
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Version/source control ensures that all code changes are tracked, and previously remediated flaws do not reappear.
* Without robust source control practices, outdated or insecure code can inadvertently be reintroduced.
Why Other Options Are Less Likely:
* A. Ineffective configuration management controls: This pertains to system configurations, not application code.
* B. Lack of change management controls: Change management addresses overall process but does not specifically prevent code reintroduction.
* D. High turnover in the development department: While turnover may contribute to the issue, the root cause is inadequate version/source control.
EC-Council CISO Reference:Effective development practices, including version control, are emphasized as critical to maintaining application security.
NEW QUESTION # 45
One of the MAIN goals of a Business Continuity Plan is to
- A. Ensure all infrastructure and applications are available in the event of a disaster
- B. Allow all technical first-responders to understand their roles in the event of a disaster
- C. Provide step by step plans to recover business processes in the event of a disaster
- D. Assign responsibilities to the technical teams responsible for the recovery of all data.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 46
What is the purpose of the statement of retained earnings of an organization?
- A. It has a direct correlation with the CISO's budget
- B. It represents the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls
- C. It represents the sum of all capital expenditures
- D. It represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls
Answer: D
Explanation:
The statement of retained earnings shows the portion of net income retained by the organization after dividends are paid. These retained earnings can be reinvested in the company, such as financing security initiatives or technology upgrades. It does not directly correlate with capital expenditures (A), savings from security controls (C), or the CISO's budget (D).
NEW QUESTION # 47
Assigning the role and responsibility of Information Assurance to a dedicated and independent security group is an example of:
- A. Preemptive Controls
- B. Detective Controls
- C. Proactive Controls
- D. Organizational Controls
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following is considered one of the most frequent failures in project management?
- A. Failure to meet project deadlines
- B. Overly restrictive management
- C. Insufficient resources
- D. Excessive personnel on project
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 49
The ultimate goal of an IT security projects is:
- A. Complete security
- B. Increase stock value
- C. Support business requirements
- D. Implement information security policies
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ultimate Goal of IT Security Projects:
* IT security projects aim to align security efforts with the overarching goals of the organization.
* Supporting business requirements ensures that security enables rather than hinders business operations.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* A. Increase stock value: A secondary outcome, not the primary goal of IT security projects.
* B. Complete security: Impossible to achieve; security is about risk management, not elimination.
* D. Implement information security policies: Policies are a means to an end, not the ultimate goal.
EC-Council CISO Reference:
The program highlights that IT security must be a business enabler, focusing on integrating security measures to achieve strategic business objectives.
NEW QUESTION # 50
At which point should the identity access management team be notified of the termination of an employee?
- A. Immediately so the employee account(s) can be disabled
- B. During the monthly review cycle
- C. At the end of the day once the employee is off site
- D. Before an audit
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 51
The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods.
Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling.
What is the most likely reason for such broad access?
- A. The requirement to post entries for closed accounting period.
- B. The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.
- C. The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.
- D. The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 52
Credit card information, medical data, and government records are all examples of:
- A. Confidential/Protected Information
- B. Bodily Information
- C. Communications Information
- D. Territorial Information
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following should be determined while defining risk management strategies?
- A. Risk assessment criteria
- B. IT architecture complexity
- C. Organizational objectives and risk tolerance
- D. Enterprise disaster recovery plans
Answer: C
Explanation:
Defining Risk Management Strategies:Risk management strategies should be aligned with the organization' s mission, vision, and objectives to ensure that risks are managed in a way that supports business goals.
Key Determinants:
* Organizational Objectives: These define what the business aims to achieve and set the context for assessing and managing risks.
* Risk Tolerance: This determines the acceptable level of risk the organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives.
Why Other Options Are Secondary:
* Risk Assessment Criteria (B): It is a subset of the overall strategy.
* IT Architecture Complexity (C): This is operational and not a strategic focus.
* Enterprise Disaster Recovery Plans (D): These are tactical responses to risks, not primary strategy determinants.
References:EC-Council frameworks stress aligning risk management with business priorities and acceptable risk thresholds.
NEW QUESTION # 54
The Information Security Management program MUST protect:
- A. Against distributed denial of service attacks
- B. critical business processes and/or revenue streams
- C. all organizational assets
- D. Intellectual property released into the public domain
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following represents the best method of ensuring business unit alignment with security program requirements?
- A. Provide clear communication of security requirements throughout the organization
- B. Demonstrate executive support with written mandates for security policy adherence
- C. Perform increased audits of security processes and procedures
- D. Create collaborative risk management approaches within the organization
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following is MOST important when dealing with an Information Security Steering committee:
- A. Be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by a vendor.
- B. Include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels.
- C. Ensure that security policies and procedures have been vetted and approved.
- D. Review all past audit and compliance reports.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 57
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