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NEW QUESTION # 63
In which of the following storage architecture is the data stored in a localized system, server, or storage hardware and capable of storing a limited amount of data in its database and locally available for data usage?
- A. Cloud storage
- B. Object-based storage
- C. Distributed storage
- D. Centralized storage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Centralized storage architecture refers to a system where data is stored in a localized system, server, or storage hardware. This type of storage is capable of holding a limited amount of data in its database and is locally available for data usage. Centralized storage is commonly used in smaller organizations or specific departments within larger organizations where the volume of data is manageable and does not require the scalability offered by distributed or cloud storage solutions. Centralized storage systems simplify data management and access but might present challenges in terms of scalabilityand data recovery.References:
* "Data Storage Solutions for Your Business: Centralized vs. Decentralized," Techopedia
* "The Basics of Centralized Data Storage," by Margaret Rouse, SearchStorage
NEW QUESTION # 64
Which of the following risk management processes identifies the risks, estimates the impact, and determines sources to recommend proper mitigation measures?
- A. Risk assessment
- B. Risk avoidance
- C. Risk assumption
- D. Risk mitigation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Risk assessment is the risk management process that involves identifying risks, estimating their impact on the organization, and determining the sources of those risks to recommend appropriate mitigation measures. The goal of a risk assessment is to understand the nature of potential threats, vulnerabilities, and the consequences of those risks materializing, allowing an organization to make informed decisions about how to address them effectively. Risk assumption involves accepting the potential impact of a risk, risk mitigation focuses on reducing the likelihood or impact of risks, and risk avoidance involves taking actions to avoid the risk entirely.
References:The CREST CPTIA course materials include discussions on risk management processes, outlining the importance of risk assessment in identifying and preparing for potential security threats.
NEW QUESTION # 65
In which of the following types of insider threats an insider who is uneducated on potential security threats or simply bypasses general security procedures to meet workplace efficiency?
- A. Malicious insider
- B. Professional insider
- C. Compromised insider
- D. Negligent insider
Answer: D
Explanation:
A negligent insider is an individual within an organization who, due to a lack of knowledge on security threats or in an attempt to increase workplace efficiency, inadvertently bypasses security procedures or makes errors that compromise security. This type of insider threat is not malicious in intent; rather, it stems from carelessness, oversight, or a lack of proper security training. Such insiders might click on phishing links, mishandle sensitive information, or use unsecured networks for work-related tasks, thereby exposing the organization to potential security breaches. This contrasts with compromised insiders (who are manipulated by external parties), professional insiders (who misuse their access for personal gain), and malicious insiders (who intentionally aim to harm the organization).References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides discuss different types of insider threats, emphasizing the importance of security awareness training to mitigate the risks associated with negligent insiders.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which one of the following is the correct flow of the stages in an incident handling and response (IH&R) process?
- A. Preparation -* Incident recording -> Incident triage -* Containment -*#Eradication->Recovery-
* Post-incident activities - B. Incident recording -> Preparation -> Containment * Incident triage -> Recovery > Eradication -> Post- incident activities
- C. Incident triage -> Eradication -#Containment-* Incident recording-* Preparation-* Recovery-
* Post-incident activities - D. Containment -* Incident recording -* Incident triage -> Preparation -* Recovery -> Eradication -* Post-incident activities
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct flow of stages in an Incident Handling and Response (IH&R) process as outlined in the Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) by EC-Council begins with Preparation. This phase involves getting ready for potential incidents by developing plans, policies, and procedures, and ensuring that tools and team training are up to date. Incident Recording is the next stage, where incidents are documented and reported. Incident Triage follows, prioritizing incidents based on their impact and urgency. Containment is next, aiming to limit the damage of the incident and prevent further spread. Eradication comes after containment, where the root cause of the incident is removed. Recovery is the stage where affected systems are restored to their operational status. Post-Incident Activities conclude the process, reviewing and learning from the incident to improve future response efforts.
References:This structured approach is foundational in the CREST CPTIA program, ensuring that incident handlers are prepared to systematically address and manage cybersecurity incidents efficiently.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Clark, a professional hacker, exploited the web application of a target organization by tampering the form and parameter values. He successfully exploited the web application and gained access to the information assets of the organization.
Identify the vulnerability in the web application exploited by the attacker.
- A. Security misconfiguration
- B. SQL injection
- C. Broken access control
- D. Sensitive data exposure
Answer: C
Explanation:
The vulnerability exploited by Clark through tampering with form and parameter values to gain unauthorized access to information assets is indicative of Broken Access Control. Broken Access Control vulnerabilities occur when a web application does not properly enforce restrictions on what authenticated users are allowed to do. Attackers can exploit these vulnerabilities to access unauthorized functionality or data, such as accessing other users' accounts, viewing sensitive files, and modifying other users' data.
NEW QUESTION # 68
H&P, Inc. is a small-scale organization that has decided to outsource the network security monitoring due to lack of resources in the organization. They are looking for the options where they can directly incorporate threat intelligence into their existing network defense solutions.
Which of the following is the most cost-effective methods the organization can employ?
- A. Look for an individual within the organization
- B. Recruit data management solution provider
- C. Recruit managed security service providers (MSSP)
- D. Recruit the right talent
Answer: C
Explanation:
For H&P, Inc., a small-scale organization looking to outsource network security monitoring and incorporate threat intelligence into their network defenses cost-effectively, recruiting a Managed Security Service Provider (MSSP) would be the most suitable option. MSSPs offer a range of services including network security monitoring, threat intelligence, incident response, and compliance management, often at a lower cost than maintaining an in-house security team. This allows organizations to benefit from expert services and advanced security technologies without the need for significant resource investment.References:
* "The Benefits of Managed Security Services," by Gartner
* "How to Choose a Managed Security Service Provider (MSSP)," by CSO Online
NEW QUESTION # 69
During the process of threat intelligence analysis, John, a threat analyst, successfully extracted an indication of adversary's information, such as Modus operandi, tools, communication channels, and forensics evasion strategies used by adversaries.
Identify the type of threat intelligence analysis is performed by John.
- A. Tactical threat intelligence analysis
- B. Strategic threat intelligence analysis
- C. Technical threat intelligence analysis
- D. Operational threat intelligence analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Tactical threat intelligence analysis focuses on the immediate, technical indicators of threats, such as the tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) used by adversaries, their communication channels, the tools and software they utilize, and their strategies for evading forensic analysis. This type of analysis is crucial for operational defenses and is used by security teams to adjust their defenses against current threats. Since John successfully extracted information related to the adversaries' modus operandi, tools, communication channels, and evasion strategies, he is performing tactical threat intelligence analysis. This differs from strategic and operational threat intelligence, which focus on broader trends and specific operations, respectively, and from technical threat intelligence, which deals with technical indicators like malware signatures and IPs.References:
* "Tactical Cyber Intelligence," by Cyber Threat Intelligence Network, Inc.
* "Intelligence-Driven Incident Response: Outwitting the Adversary," by Scott J. Roberts and Rebekah Brown
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which of the following is not called volatile data?
- A. The dale a no Lime of the system
- B. Creation dates of files
- C. State of the network interface
- D. Open sockets er open ports
Answer: B
Explanation:
Volatile data refers to information that is stored temporarily and is lost when a computer is turned off or restarted, such as RAM contents, including open sockets and open ports, the date and time of the system, and the state of the network interface. The creation dates of files, however, are considered non-volatile data because they are preserved on the hard drive and remain available after the system is restarted or turned off.
Non-volatile data is stored on persistent storage mediums like hard drives, SSDs, and magnetic tapes, where it remains until it is deleted or overwritten.References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification emphasizes the distinction between volatile and non-volatile data in the context of digital forensics and incident response, highlighting the importance of understanding what data may be lost upon system shutdown and what data persists.
NEW QUESTION # 71
Sam received an alert through an email monitoring tool indicating that their company was targeted by a phishing attack. After analyzing the incident, Sam identified that most of the targets of the attack are high- profile executives of the company. What type of phishing attack is this?
- A. Whaling
- B. Spear phishing
- C. Puddle phishing
- D. Pharming
Answer: A
Explanation:
Whaling is a specific type of phishing attack that targets high-profile executives or individuals within an organization, often with the intent to steal sensitive information or gain access to their accounts for financial fraud. The term "whaling" is used because it targets the "big fish" of an organization. Given that Sam identified the targets of the attack as high-profile executives, the described scenario is indicative of a whaling attack.
References:The CREST CPTIA curriculum includes a section on different types of phishing attacks, including whaling, emphasizing the strategies attackers use to target individuals based on their roles within an organization.
NEW QUESTION # 72
In which of the following attacks does the attacker exploit vulnerabilities in a computer application before the software developer can release a patch for them?
- A. Zero-day attack
- B. Active online attack
- C. Advanced persistent attack
- D. Distributed network attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
A zero-day attack exploits vulnerabilities in software or hardware that are unknown to the vendor or for which a patch has not yet been released. These attacks are particularly dangerous because they take advantage of the window of time between the vulnerability's discovery and the availability of a fix, leaving systems exposed to potential exploitation. Zero-day attacks require a proactive and comprehensive approach to security, including the use of advanced threat detection systems and threat intelligence to identify and mitigate potential threats before they can be exploited.References:
* "Understanding Zero-Day Exploits," by MITRE
* "Zero-Day Threats: What They Are and How to Protect Against Them," by Symantec
NEW QUESTION # 73
Dan is a newly appointed information security professional in a renowned organization. He is supposed to follow multiple security strategies to eradicate malware incidents. Which of the following is not considered as a good practice for maintaining information security and eradicating malware incidents?
- A. Do not click on web browser pop-up windows
- B. Do not open files with file extensions such as .bat, .com, ,exe, .pif, .vbs, and so on
- C. Do not download or execute applications from trusted sources
- D. Do not download or execute applications from third-party sources
Answer: C
Explanation:
The statement "Do not download or execute applications from trusted sources" is incorrect and not considered a good practice for maintaining information security and eradicating malware incidents. In contrast, downloading or executing applications from trusted sources is a fundamental security best practice. Trusted sources are vetted and are generally considered safe for downloading software, updates, and applications. This practice helps to minimize the risk of introducing malware into the organizational environment. The other options (A, B, C) represent good practices that help in reducing the likelihood of malware infections by avoiding potentially harmful actions.
References:The CREST CPTIA materials from EC-Council provide guidance on best practices for malware prevention and response, underscoring the importance of relyingon trusted sources for software and application downloads as part of a robust information security strategy.
NEW QUESTION # 74
During the process of detecting and containing malicious emails, incident responders should examine the originating IP address of the emails.
The steps to examine the originating IP address are as follow:
1. Search for the IP in the WHOIS database
2. Open the email to trace and find its header
3. Collect the IP address of the sender from the header of the received mail
4. Look for the geographic address of the sender in the WHOIS database
Identify the correct sequence of steps to be performed by the incident responders to examine originating IP address of the emails.
- A. 2-->1-->4-->3
- B. 2-->3-->1-->4
- C. 4-->1-->2-->3
- D. 1-->3-->2-->4
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct sequence to examine the originating IP address of emails involves first accessing the email's header to locate the IP address, then using external resources to investigate that address further. The steps are as follows:
* Step 2:Open the email to trace and find its header. This is the initial step because the header contains valuable information about the email's journey across the internet, including the originating IP address.
* Step 3:Collect the IP address of the sender from the header of the received mail. This detail is crucial for the next steps in the investigation.
* Step 1:Search for the IP in the WHOIS database. This database can provide information about the owner of the IP address, including the ISP and sometimes the geographic location.
* Step 4:Look for the geographic address of the sender in the WHOIS database. With the IP address information obtained from the WHOIS search, the geographic location or the originating country of the email can often be deduced, contributing to the analysis of the email's legitimacy.
References:The process of analyzing email headers to trace originating IP addresses and further investigating those addresses is a common practice in incident response, covered under the digital forensics and email analysis topics within the CREST CPTIA curriculum by EC-Council.
NEW QUESTION # 75
Kim, an analyst, is looking for an intelligence-sharing platform to gather and share threat information from a variety of sources. He wants to use this information to develop security policies to enhance the overall security posture of his organization.
Which of the following sharing platforms should be used by Kim?
- A. OmniPeek
- B. Blueliv threat exchange network
- C. PortDroid network analysis
- D. Cuckoo sandbox
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Blueliv Threat Exchange Network is a collaborative platform designed for sharing and receiving threat intelligence among security professionals and organizations. It provides real-time information on global threats, helping participants to enhance their security posture by leveraging shared intelligence. The platform facilitates the exchange ofinformation related to cybersecurity threats, including indicators of compromise (IoCs), tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) of threat actors, and other relevant data. This makes it an ideal choice for Kim, who is looking to gather and share threat information to develop security policies for his organization. In contrast, Cuckoo Sandbox is a malware analysis system, OmniPeek is a network analyzer, and PortDroid is a network analysis application, none of which are primarily designed for intelligence sharing.
References:
* Blueliv's official documentation and resources
* "Building an Intelligence-Led Security Program," by Allan Liska
NEW QUESTION # 76
A threat analyst obtains an intelligence related to a threat, where the data is sent in the form of a connection request from a remote host to the server. From this data, he obtains only the IP address of the source and destination but no contextual information. While processing this data, he obtains contextual information stating that multiple connection requests from different geo-locations are received by the server within a short time span, and as a result, the server is stressed and gradually its performance has reduced. He further performed analysis on the information based on the past and present experience and concludes the attack experienced by the client organization.
Which of the following attacks is performed on the client organization?
- A. Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack
- B. DHCP attacks
- C. MAC spoofing attack
- D. Bandwidth attack
Answer: A
Explanation:
The attack described, where multiple connection requests from different geo-locations are received by a server within a short time span leading to stress and reduced performance, is indicative of a Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack. In a DDoS attack, the attacker floods the target's resources (such as a server) with excessive requests from multiple sources, making it difficult for the server to handle legitimate traffic, leading to degradation or outright unavailability of service. The use of multiple geo-locations for the attack sources is a common characteristic of DDoS attacks, making them harder to mitigate.References:
* "Understanding Denial-of-Service Attacks," US-CERT
* "DDoS Quick Guide," DHS/NCCIC
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which of the following risk mitigation strategies involves execution of controls to reduce the risk factor and brings it to an acceptable level or accepts the potential risk and continues operating the IT system?
- A. Risk avoidance
- B. Risk assumption
- C. Risk planning
- D. Risk transference
Answer: B
Explanation:
Risk assumption involves accepting the potential risk and continuing to operate the IT system while implementing controls to reduce the risk to an acceptable level. This strategy acknowledges that some level of risk is inevitable and focuses on managing it through mitigation measures rather than eliminating it entirely.
Risk avoidance would entail taking actions to avoid the risk entirely, risk planning involves preparing for potential risks, and risk transference shifts the risk to another party, typically through insurance or outsourcing. Risk assumption is a pragmatic approach that balances the need for operational continuity with the imperative of risk management.References:The CREST program covers various risk mitigation strategies, emphasizing the selection of the appropriate approach based on the organization's risk tolerance and the specific context of the threat.
NEW QUESTION # 78
Elizabeth, who works for OBC organization as an incident responder, is assessing the risks to the organizational security. As part of the assessment process, she is calculating the probability of a threat source exploiting an existing system vulnerability. Which of the following risk assessment steps is Elizabeth currently in?
- A. Vulnerability identification
- B. System characterization
- C. Impact analysis
- D. Likelihood analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the risk assessment process, calculating the probability that a threat source will exploit an existing system vulnerability is known as likelihood analysis. This step involves evaluating how probable it is that the organization's vulnerabilities can be exploited by potential threats, considering various factors such as the nature of the vulnerability, the presence and capability of threat actors, and the effectiveness of current controls. Elizabeth's task of assessing the probability of exploitation is crucial for understanding the risk level associated with different vulnerabilities and for prioritizing risk mitigation efforts based on the likelihood of occurrence.
References:The Certified Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) program by EC-Council includes detailed discussions on risk assessment methodologies, where likelihood analysis is highlighted as a key component in evaluating risks to organizational security.
NEW QUESTION # 79
Which of the following best describes an email issued as an attack medium, in which several messages are sent to a mailbox to cause overflow?
- A. Masquerading
- B. Smurf attack
- C. Spoofing
- D. Email-bombing
Answer: D
Explanation:
Email-bombing refers to the attack where the attacker sends a massive volume of emails to a specific email address or mail server in order to overflow the mailbox or overwhelm the server, potentially causing it to fail or deny service to legitimate users. This attack can disrupt communications and, in some cases, lead to the targeted email account being disabled. Masquerading involves pretending to be another legitimate user, spoofing is the creation of emails (or other communications) with a forged sender address, and a smurf attack is a specific type of Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack that exploits Internet Protocol (IP) and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to flood a target with traffic. Email-bombing specifically targets email services with the goal of causing disruption by overflowing inboxes.References:CREST CPTIA courses and study guides often include discussions on various attack vectors used by cybercriminals, including email- based threats and their impact on organizational security.
NEW QUESTION # 80
An organization named Sam Morison Inc. decided to use cloud-based services to reduce the cost of maintenance. The organization identified various risks and threats associated with cloud service adoption and migrating business-critical data to thirdparty systems. Hence, the organization decided to deploy cloud-based security tools to prevent upcoming threats.
Which of the following tools help the organization to secure the cloud resources and services?
- A. Burp Suite
- B. Alert Logic
- C. Nmap
- D. Wireshark
Answer: B
Explanation:
Alert Logic is a cloud-based security tool that provides Security-as-a-Service solutions including threat management, vulnerability assessment, and improved security outcomes. It is designed specifically to secure cloud resources and services, making it an ideal choice for organizations like Sam Morison Inc. that are moving their operations to the cloud and are concerned about the security of their data. Tools like Nmap, Burp Suite, and Wireshark, while valuable in certain contexts, do not offer the same cloud-focused security capabilities as Alert Logic.
NEW QUESTION # 81
An organization suffered many major attacks and lost critical information, such as employee records, and financial information. Therefore, the management decides to hire a threat analyst to extract the strategic threat intelligence that provides high-level information regarding current cyber-security posture, threats, details on the financial impact of various cyber-activities, and so on.
Which of the following sources will help the analyst to collect the required intelligence?
- A. Active campaigns, attacks on other organizations, data feeds from external third parties
- B. Human, social media, chat rooms
- C. OSINT, CTI vendors, ISAO/ISACs
- D. Campaign reports, malware, incident reports, attack group reports, human intelligence
Answer: C
Explanation:
For gathering strategic threat intelligence that provides a high-level overview of the current cybersecurity posture, potential financial impacts of cyber activities, and overarching threats, sources such as Open Source Intelligence (OSINT), Cyber Threat Intelligence (CTI) vendors, and Information Sharing and Analysis Organizations (ISAOs)/Information Sharing and Analysis Centers (ISACs) are invaluable. OSINT involves collecting data from publicly available sources, CTI vendors specialize in providing detailed threat intelligence services, and ISAOs/ISACs facilitate the sharing of threat data within specific industries or communities. These sources can provide broad insights into threat landscapes, helping organizations understand how to align their cybersecurity strategies with current trends and threats.References:
* "Cyber Threat Intelligence: Sources and Methods," by Max Kilger, Ph.D., SANS Institute Reading Room
* "Open Source Intelligence (OSINT): An Introduction to the Basic Concepts and the Potential Benefits for Information Security," by Kevin Cardwell, IEEE Xplore
NEW QUESTION # 82
The following steps describe the key activities in forensic readiness planning:
1. Train the staff to handle the incident and preserve the evidence
2. Create a special process for documenting the procedure
3. Identify the potential evidence required for an incident
4. Determine the source of the evidence
5. Establish a legal advisory board to guide the investigation process
6. Identify if the incident requires full or formal investigation
7. Establish a policy for securely handling and storing the collected evidence
8. Define a policy that determines the pathway to legally extract electronic evidence with minimal disruption Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in forensic readiness planning.
- A. 3-->4-->8-->7-->6-->1-->2-->5
- B. 1-->2-->3-->4-->5-->6-->7-->8
- C. 2-->3-->1-->4-->6-->5-->7-->8
- D. 3-->1-->4-->5-->8-->2-->6-->7
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct sequence of steps involved in forensic readiness planning, based on the activities described, is as follows:
* Identify the potential evidence required for an incident.
* Determine the source of the evidence.
* Define a policy that determines the pathway to legally extract electronic evidence with minimal disruption.
* Establish a policy for securely handling and storing the collected evidence.
* Identify if the incident requires full or formal investigation.
* Train the staff to handle the incident and preserve the evidence.
* Create a special process for documenting the procedure.
* Establish a legal advisory board to guide the investigation process.This sequence ensures that an organization is prepared to handle incidents efficiently, with a focus on identifying relevant evidence and the legal context of its collection, followed by staff training and the establishment of guiding policies and advisory boards.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides include discussions on forensic readiness planning, highlighting the importance of preparing organizations for effective legal and technical handling of incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 83
Walter and Sons Company has faced major cyber attacks and lost confidential data. The company has decided to concentrate more on the security rather than other resources. Therefore, they hired Alice, a threat analyst, to perform data analysis. Alice was asked to perform qualitative data analysis to extract useful information from collected bulk data.
Which of the following techniques will help Alice to perform qualitative data analysis?
- A. Brainstorming, interviewing, SWOT analysis, Delphi technique, and so on
- B. Finding links between data and discover threat-related information
- C. Numerical calculations, statistical modeling, measurement, research, and so on.
- D. Regression analysis, variance analysis, and so on
Answer: A
Explanation:
For Alice to perform qualitative data analysis, techniques such as brainstorming, interviewing, SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) analysis, and the Delphi technique are suitable. Unlike quantitative analysis, which involves numerical calculations and statistical modeling, qualitative analysis focuses on understanding patterns, themes, and narratives within the data. These techniques enable the analyst to explore the data's deeper meanings and insights, which are essential for strategic decision-making and developing a nuanced understanding of cybersecurity threats and vulnerabilities.References:
* "Qualitative Research Methods in Cybersecurity," SANS Institute Reading Room
* "The Delphi Method for Cybersecurity Risk Assessment," by Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA)
NEW QUESTION # 84
Lizzy, an analyst, wants to recognize the level of risks to the organization so as to plan countermeasures against cyber attacks. She used a threat modelling methodology where she performed the following stages:
Stage 1: Build asset-based threat profiles
Stage 2: Identify infrastructure vulnerabilities
Stage 3: Develop security strategy and plans
Which of the following threat modelling methodologies was used by Lizzy in the aforementioned scenario?
- A. DREAD
- B. OCTAVE
- C. VAST
- D. TRIKE
Answer: B
Explanation:
The threat modeling methodology employed by Lizzy, which involves building asset-based threat profiles, identifying infrastructure vulnerabilities, and developing security strategies and plans, aligns with the OCTAVE (Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, and Vulnerability Evaluation) methodology. OCTAVE focuses on organizational risk and security practices, emphasizing self-directed risk assessments to identify and prioritize threats to organizational assets and develop appropriate security strategies and plans. This methodology is asset-driven and revolves around understanding critical assets, identifying threats to those assets, and assessing vulnerabilities, leading to the development of a comprehensive security strategy.
References:
* The CERT Guide to System and Network Security Practices by Julia H. Allen
* "OCTAVE Method Implementation Guide Version 2.0," Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute
NEW QUESTION # 85
Michael is a part of the computer incident response team of a company. One of his responsibilities is to handle email incidents. The company receives an email from an unknown source, and one of the steps that he needs to take is to check the validity of the email. Which of the following tools should he use?
- A. Zendio
- B. Yesware
- C. Email Dossier
- D. G Suite Toolbox
Answer: C
Explanation:
Email Dossier is a tool designed to assist in the investigation of email incidents by analyzing and validating email headers and providing detailed information about the origin, routing, and authenticity of an email.
When Michael is tasked with handling an email incident and needs to check the validity of an email received from an unknown source, Email Dossier can be utilized to trace the email's path, assess its credibility, and identify potential red flags associated with phishing or other malicious email-based attacks.
References:The CREST CPTIA curriculum emphasizes the importance of tools and techniques for email incident handling, including the use of Email Dossier for investigating suspicious emails and aiding in the response to email-based threats.
NEW QUESTION # 86
Rinni is an incident handler and she is performing memory dump analysis.
Which of following tools she can use in order to perform memory dump analysis?
- A. OllyDbg and IDA Pro
- B. Scylla and OllyDumpEx
- C. Procmon and ProcessExplorer
- D. iNetSim
Answer: B
Explanation:
For memory dump analysis, tools like Scylla and OllyDumpEx are more suited. These tools are designed to analyze and extract information from memory dumps, which can be crucial for understanding the state of a system at the time of an incident. Scylla is used for reconstructing imports in dumped binaries, while OllyDumpEx is an OllyDbg plugin used for dumping process memory. Both tools are valuable for incident handlers like Rinni who are performing memory dump analysis to uncover evidence or understand the behavior of malicious software.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Tracy works as a CISO in a large multinational company. She consumes threat intelligence to understand the changing trends of cyber security. She requires intelligence to understand the current business trends and make appropriate decisions regarding new technologies, security budget, improvement of processes, and staff.
The intelligence helps her in minimizing business risks and protecting the new technology and business initiatives.
Identify the type of threat intelligence consumer is Tracy.
- A. Strategic users
- B. Tactical users
- C. Operational users
- D. Technical users
Answer: A
Explanation:
Tracy, as a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), requires intelligence that aids in understanding broader business and cybersecurity trends, making informed decisions regarding new technologies, security budgets, process improvements, and staffing. This need aligns with the role of a strategic user of threat intelligence. Strategic users leverage intelligence to guide long-term planning and decision-making, focusing on minimizing business risks and safeguarding against emerging threats to new technology and business initiatives. This type of intelligence is less about the technical specifics of individual threats and more about understanding the overall threat landscape, regulatory environment, and industry trends to inform high-level strategy and policy.References:
* "The Role of Strategic Intelligence in Cybersecurity," Journal of Cybersecurity Education, Research and Practice
* "Cyber Threat Intelligence and the Lessons from Law Enforcement," by Robert M. Lee and David Bianco, SANS Institute Reading Room
NEW QUESTION # 88
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