[2025] Pass CREST CPTIA Exam Updated 137 Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 19
Jim works as a security analyst in a large multinational company. Recently, a group of hackers penetrated into their organizational network and used a data staging technique to collect sensitive data. They collected all sorts of sensitive data about the employees and customers, business tactics of the organization, financial information, network infrastructure information and so on.
What should Jim do to detect the data staging before the hackers exfiltrate from the network?
- A. Jim should identify the web shell running in the network by analyzing server access, error logs, suspicious strings indicating encoding, user agent strings, and so on.
- B. Jim should analyze malicious DNS requests, DNS payload, unspecified domains, and destination of DNS requests.
- C. Jim should identify the attack at an initial stage by checking the content of the user agent field.
- D. Jim should monitor network traffic for malicious file transfers, file integrity monitoring, and event logs.
Answer: D
Explanation:
In the scenario described, where attackers have penetrated the network and are staging data for exfiltration, Jim should focus on monitoring network traffic for signs of malicious file transfers, implement file integrity monitoring, and scrutinize event logs. This approach is crucial for detecting unusual activity that could indicate data staging, such as large volumes of data being moved to uncommon locations, sudden changes in file integrity, or suspicious entries in event logs. Early detection of these indicators can help in identifying the staging activity before the data is exfiltrated from the network.References:
* NIST Special Publication 800-61 Rev. 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide"
* SANS Institute Reading Room, "Detecting Malicious Activity with DNS and NetFlow"
NEW QUESTION # 20
Which of the following has been used to evade IDS and IPS?
- A. HTTP
- B. TNP
- C. SNMP
- D. Fragmentation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Fragmentation is a technique used by attackers to evade detection by Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and Intrusion Prevention Systems (IPS). By breaking down packets into smaller fragments, attackers can make it more difficult for these security systems to detect malicious payloads or signature-based patterns associated with known attacks. This method exploits the fact that some IDS/IPS solutions may not properly reassemble packet fragments for analysis, thereby allowing malicious fragments to pass through undetected.
References:In its coverage of network security mechanisms and evasion techniques, the CREST details how attackers exploit vulnerabilities in the implementation of IDS and IPS systems, including the use of packet fragmentation.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Eric works as a system administrator in ABC organization. He granted privileged users with unlimited permissions to access the systems. These privileged users can misuse their rights unintentionally or maliciously or attackers can trick them to perform malicious activities.
Which of the following guidelines helps incident handlers to eradicate insider attacks by privileged users?
- A. Do not use encryption methods to prevent administrators and privileged users from accessing backup tapes and sensitive information
- B. Do not allow administrators to use unique accounts during the installation process
- C. Do not control the access to administrators and privileged users
- D. Do not enable the default administrative accounts to ensure accountability
Answer: D
Explanation:
The guideline that helps incident handlers to eradicate insider attacks by privileged users is to ensure accountability by not enabling default administrative accounts. Instead, organizations should require administrators and privileged users to use individual accounts that can be audited and traced back to specific actions and users. This practice enhances security by ensuring that all actions taken on the system can be attributed to individual users, reducing the risk of misuse of privileges and making it easier to identify the source of malicious activities or policy violations. The other options listed either present insecure practices or misunderstandings of security protocols that would not help in eradicating insider attacks.References:The CREST materials discuss strategies for managing and mitigating the risks associated with privileged users, including the importance of accountability and the controlled use of administrative privileges to prevent insider threats.
NEW QUESTION # 22
In which of the following types of insider threats an insider who is uneducated on potential security threats or simply bypasses general security procedures to meet workplace efficiency?
- A. Negligent insider
- B. Compromised insider
- C. Malicious insider
- D. Professional insider
Answer: A
Explanation:
A negligent insider is an individual within an organization who, due to a lack of knowledge on security threats or in an attempt to increase workplace efficiency, inadvertently bypasses security procedures or makes errors that compromise security. This type of insider threat is not malicious in intent; rather, it stems from carelessness, oversight, or a lack of proper security training. Such insiders might click on phishing links, mishandle sensitive information, or use unsecured networks for work-related tasks, thereby exposing the organization to potential security breaches. This contrasts with compromised insiders (who are manipulated by external parties), professional insiders (who misuse their access for personal gain), and malicious insiders (who intentionally aim to harm the organization).References:The Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides discuss different types of insider threats, emphasizing the importance of security awareness training to mitigate the risks associated with negligent insiders.
NEW QUESTION # 23
Karry, a threat analyst at an XYZ organization, is performing threat intelligence analysis. During the data collection phase, he used a data collection method that involves no participants and is purely based on analysis and observation of activities and processes going on within the local boundaries of the organization.
Identify the type data collection method used by the Karry.
- A. Raw data collection
- B. Passive data collection
- C. Active data collection
- D. Exploited data collection
Answer: B
Explanation:
Karry's method of collecting data, which involves no active engagement with participants and is purely based on analysis and observation of activities within the organization, is known as passive data collection. This method is characterized by the non-intrusive monitoring of data and events, allowing analysts to gather intelligence without alerting potential adversaries or disrupting ongoing processes. Passive data collection is essential for maintaining operational security and obtaining an unaltered view of system and network activities.References:
* "Passive Data Collection in Cybersecurity," by Cybersecurity Guide
* "Understanding Passive and Active Data Collection for Cyber Threat Intelligence," by ThreatConnect
NEW QUESTION # 24
An analyst is conducting threat intelligence analysis in a client organization, and during the information gathering process, he gathered information from the publicly available sources and analyzed to obtain a rich useful form of intelligence. The information source that he used is primarily used for national security, law enforcement, and for collecting intelligence required for business or strategic decision making.
Which of the following sources of intelligence did the analyst use to collect information?
- A. OPSEC
- B. ISAC
- C. OSINT
- D. SIGINT
Answer: C
Explanation:
The analyst used Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) to gather information from publicly available sources.
OSINT involves collecting and analyzing information from publicly accessible sources to produce actionable intelligence. This can include media reports, public government data, professional and academic publications, and information available on the internet. OSINT is widely used for national security, law enforcement, and business intelligence purposes, providing a rich source of information for making informed decisions and understanding the threat landscape.References:
* "Open Source Intelligence (OSINT) Tools and Techniques," by SANS Institute
* "The Role of OSINT in Cybersecurity and Threat Intelligence," by Recorded Future
NEW QUESTION # 25
Walter and Sons Company has faced major cyber attacks and lost confidential data. The company has decided to concentrate more on the security rather than other resources. Therefore, they hired Alice, a threat analyst, to perform data analysis. Alice was asked to perform qualitative data analysis to extract useful information from collected bulk data.
Which of the following techniques will help Alice to perform qualitative data analysis?
- A. Brainstorming, interviewing, SWOT analysis, Delphi technique, and so on
- B. Finding links between data and discover threat-related information
- C. Numerical calculations, statistical modeling, measurement, research, and so on.
- D. Regression analysis, variance analysis, and so on
Answer: A
Explanation:
For Alice to perform qualitative data analysis, techniques such as brainstorming, interviewing, SWOT (Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats) analysis, and the Delphi technique are suitable. Unlike quantitative analysis, which involves numerical calculations and statistical modeling, qualitative analysis focuses on understanding patterns, themes, and narratives within the data. These techniques enable the analyst to explore the data's deeper meanings and insights, which are essential for strategic decision-making and developing a nuanced understanding of cybersecurity threats and vulnerabilities.References:
* "Qualitative Research Methods in Cybersecurity," SANS Institute Reading Room
* "The Delphi Method for Cybersecurity Risk Assessment," by Cybersecurity and Infrastructure Security Agency (CISA)
NEW QUESTION # 26
Jame, a professional hacker, is trying to hack the confidential information of a target organization. He identified the vulnerabilities in the target system and created a tailored deliverable malicious payload using an exploit and a backdoor to send it to the victim.
Which of the following phases of cyber kill chain methodology is Jame executing?
- A. Installation
- B. Weaponization
- C. Exploitation
- D. Reconnaissance
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the cyber kill chain methodology, the phase where Jame is creating a tailored malicious deliverable that includes an exploit and a backdoor is known as 'Weaponization'. During this phase, the attacker prepares by coupling a payload, such as a virus or worm, with an exploit into a deliverable format, intending to compromise the target's system. This step follows the initial 'Reconnaissance' phase, where the attacker gathers information on the target, and precedes the 'Delivery' phase, where the weaponized bundle is transmitted to the target. Weaponization involves the preparation of the malware to exploit the identified vulnerabilities in the target system.References:
* Lockheed Martin's Cyber Kill Chain framework
* "Intelligence-Driven Computer Network Defense Informed by Analysis of Adversary Campaigns and Intrusion Kill Chains," leading to the development of the Cyber Kill Chain framework
NEW QUESTION # 27
What is the most recent NIST standard for incident response?
- A. 800-61r3
- B. 800-61r2
- C. 800-171r2
- D. 800-53r3
Answer: B
Explanation:
As of my last update, the most recent NIST standard for incident response was NIST Special Publication 800-
61 Revision 2 (800-61r2), titled "Computer Security Incident Handling Guide." This document provides guidelines for establishing an effective incident response program, including preparation, detection and analysis, containment, eradication, recovery, and post-incident activity.
References:The document is a key resource in the field of incident response, frequently cited in the CREST CPTIA curriculum for its comprehensive guidelines on managing and responding to cybersecurity incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 28
Employee monitoring tools are mostly used by employers to find which of the following?
- A. Conspiracies
- B. Malicious insider threats
- C. Lost registry keys
- D. Stolen credentials
Answer: B
Explanation:
Employee monitoring tools are primarily used by employers to detect and prevent malicious insider threats.
These tools can track activities such as data access, data exfiltration attempts, unauthorized actions, and other behaviors that could indicate malicious intent or pose a risk to the organization's security. While such tools may also incidentally uncover issues like lost registry keys, conspiracies, or stolen credentials, their main purpose is to safeguard against insiders who might misuse their access to harm the organization, steal data, sabotage systems, or engage in espionage.References:CREST CPTIA study materials cover various security measures and tools that organizations can use to protect against insider threats, emphasizing the role of monitoring in detecting and responding to malicious activities by insiders.
NEW QUESTION # 29
A team of threat intelligence analysts is performing threat analysis on malware, and each of them has come up with their own theory and evidence to support their theory on a given malware.
Now, to identify the most consistent theory out of all the theories, which of the following analytic processes must threat intelligence manager use?
- A. Threat modelling
- B. Analysis of competing hypotheses (ACH)
- C. Automated technical analysis
- D. Application decomposition and analysis (ADA)
Answer: B
Explanation:
Analysis of Competing Hypotheses (ACH) is an analytic process designed to help an analyst or a team of analysts evaluate multiple competing hypotheses on an issue fairly and objectively. ACH assists in identifying and analyzing the evidence for and against each hypothesis, ultimately aiding in determining the most likely explanation. In the scenario where a team of threat intelligence analysts has various theories on a particular malware, ACH would be the most appropriate method to assess these competing theories systematically. ACH involves listing all possible hypotheses, collecting data and evidence, and assessing the evidence's consistency with each hypothesis. This process helps in minimizing cognitive biases and making a more informed decision on the most consistent theory.References:
* Richards J. Heuer Jr., "Psychology of Intelligence Analysis," Central Intelligence Agency
* "A Tradecraft Primer: Structured Analytic Techniques for Improving Intelligence Analysis," Central Intelligence Agency
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following port scanning techniques involves resetting the TCP connection between client and server abruptly before completion of the three-way handshake signals, making the connection half-open?
- A. Xmas scan
- B. Full connect scan
- C. Null scan
- D. Stealth scan
Answer: D
Explanation:
The port scanning technique that involves resetting the TCP connection between the client and server abruptly before the completion of the three-way handshake, thereby leaving the connection half-open, is known as a Stealth scan (also referred to as a SYN scan). This technique allows the scanner to inquire about the status of a port without establishing a full TCP connection, making the scan less detectible to intrusion detection systems and less likely to be logged by the target. It's a method used to discreetly discover open ports on a target machine without establishing a full connection that would be visible in logs.References:CREST materials often cover different types of network scanning techniques, including Stealth scans, explaining their methodologies, purposes, and how they can be detected or mitigated.
NEW QUESTION # 31
In which of the following attacks does the attacker exploit vulnerabilities in a computer application before the software developer can release a patch for them?
- A. Advanced persistent attack
- B. Zero-day attack
- C. Active online attack
- D. Distributed network attack
Answer: B
Explanation:
A zero-day attack exploits vulnerabilities in software or hardware that are unknown to the vendor or for which a patch has not yet been released. These attacks are particularly dangerous because they take advantage of the window of time between the vulnerability's discovery and the availability of a fix, leaving systems exposed to potential exploitation. Zero-day attacks require a proactive and comprehensive approach to security, including the use of advanced threat detection systems and threat intelligence to identify and mitigate potential threats before they can be exploited.References:
* "Understanding Zero-Day Exploits," by MITRE
* "Zero-Day Threats: What They Are and How to Protect Against Them," by Symantec
NEW QUESTION # 32
Lizzy, an analyst, wants to recognize the level of risks to the organization so as to plan countermeasures against cyber attacks. She used a threat modelling methodology where she performed the following stages:
Stage 1: Build asset-based threat profiles
Stage 2: Identify infrastructure vulnerabilities
Stage 3: Develop security strategy and plans
Which of the following threat modelling methodologies was used by Lizzy in the aforementioned scenario?
- A. TRIKE
- B. OCTAVE
- C. VAST
- D. DREAD
Answer: B
Explanation:
The threat modeling methodology employed by Lizzy, which involves building asset-based threat profiles, identifying infrastructure vulnerabilities, and developing security strategies and plans, aligns with the OCTAVE (Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, and Vulnerability Evaluation) methodology. OCTAVE focuses on organizational risk and security practices, emphasizing self-directed risk assessments to identify and prioritize threats to organizational assets and develop appropriate security strategies and plans. This methodology is asset-driven and revolves around understanding critical assets, identifying threats to those assets, and assessing vulnerabilities, leading to the development of a comprehensive security strategy.
References:
* The CERT Guide to System and Network Security Practices by Julia H. Allen
* "OCTAVE Method Implementation Guide Version 2.0," Carnegie Mellon University, Software Engineering Institute
NEW QUESTION # 33
Steve works as an analyst in a UK-based firm. He was asked to perform network monitoring to find any evidence of compromise. During the network monitoring, he came to know that there are multiple logins from different locations in a short time span. Moreover, he also observed certain irregular log in patterns from locations where the organization does not have business relations. This resembles that somebody is trying to steal confidential information.
Which of the following key indicators of compromise does this scenario present?
- A. Unusual activity through privileged user account
- B. Unusual outbound network traffic
- C. Geographical anomalies
- D. Unexpected patching of systems
Answer: C
Explanation:
The scenario described by Steve's observations, where multiple logins are occurring from different locations in a short time span, especially from locations where the organization has no business relations, points to
'Geographical anomalies' as a key indicator of compromise (IoC). Geographical anomalies in logins suggest unauthorized access attempts potentially made by attackers using compromised credentials. This is particularly suspicious when the locations of these logins do not align with the normal geographical footprint of the organization's operations or employee locations. Monitoring for such anomalies can help in the early detection of unauthorized access and potential data breaches.References:
* SANS Institute Reading Room, "Indicators of Compromise: Reality's Version of the Minority Report"
* "Identifying Indicators of Compromise" by CERT-UK
NEW QUESTION # 34
XYZ Inc. was affected by a malware attack and James, being the incident handling and response (IH&R) team personnel handling the incident, found out that the root cause of the incident is a backdoor that has bypassed the security perimeter due to an existing vulnerability in the deployed firewall. James had contained the spread of the infection and removed the malware completely. Now the organization asked him to perform incident impact assessment to identify the impact of the incident over the organization and he was also asked to prepare a detailed report of the incident.
Which of the following stages in IH&R process is James working on?
- A. Evidence gathering and forensics analysis
- B. Notification
- C. Eradication
- D. Post-incident activities
Answer: D
Explanation:
James is working on the post-incident activities stage of the Incident Handling and Response (IH&R) process.
After containing the spread of the infection and removing the malware, the focus shifts to assessing the impact of the incident on the organization and preparing a detailed report. This phase involves analyzing the extent of the damage, determining the cost of the attack, evaluating how well the incident was managed, and identifying lessons learned to improve future response efforts. The objective is to restore systems to normal operation, ensure no remnants of the threat remain, and implement measures to prevent recurrence.References:
Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides outline the IH&R process, emphasizing the importance of post-incident activities for organizational recovery and improvement of future security measures.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Bob, an incident responder at CyberTech Solutions, is investigating a cybercrime attack occurred in the client company. He acquired the evidence data, preserved it, and started performing analysis on acquired evidentiary data to identify the source of the crime and the culprit behind the incident.
Identify the forensic investigation phase in which Bob is currently in.
- A. Investigation phas
- B. Post-investigation phase
- C. Vulnerability assessment phase
- D. Pre-investigation phase
Answer: A
Explanation:
Bob is in the Investigation phase of the forensic investigation process. This phase involves the detailed examination and analysis of the collected evidence to identify the source of the crime and the perpetrator behind the incident. It is a crucial step that follows the acquisition and preservation of evidence, where the incident responder applies various techniques and methodologies to analyze the evidentiary data. This analysis aims to uncover how the cybercrime was committed, trace the activities of the culprit, and gather actionable intelligence to support legal actions and prevent future incidents.References:The CREST materials discuss the stages of a forensic investigation, emphasizing the investigation phase as the point at which the incident responder analyzes evidence to draw conclusions about the incident's specifics.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Racheal is an incident handler working in InceptionTech organization. Recently, numerous employees are complaining about receiving emails from unknown senders. In order to prevent employees against spoofing emails and keeping security in mind, Racheal was asked to take appropriate actions in this matter. As a part of her assignment, she needs to analyze the email headers to check the authenticity of received emails.
Which of the following protocol/authentication standards she must check in email header to analyze the email authenticity?
- A. ARP
- B. SNMP
- C. DKIM
- D. POP
Answer: C
Explanation:
Racheal should check for DKIM (DomainKeys Identified Mail) in the email headers to analyze the authenticity of received emails. DKIM is an email authentication method designed to detect email spoofing. It provides a way for the receiver to check that an email claimed to have come from a specific domain was indeed authorized by the owner of that domain. It achieves this by affixing a digital signature, linked to a domain name, to each outgoing email message. The recipient can verify this signature to confirm that the email was not altered during its transmission and that it indeed comes from the specified domain, thereby helping to prevent email spoofing. Other options like SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol), POP (Post Office Protocol), and ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) are not directly related to email authenticity checks.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) certification materials cover various protocols and standards for ensuring the security and authenticity of communications, including email security protocols like DKIM.
NEW QUESTION # 37
The following steps describe the key activities in forensic readiness planning:
1. Train the staff to handle the incident and preserve the evidence
2. Create a special process for documenting the procedure
3. Identify the potential evidence required for an incident
4. Determine the source of the evidence
5. Establish a legal advisory board to guide the investigation process
6. Identify if the incident requires full or formal investigation
7. Establish a policy for securely handling and storing the collected evidence
8. Define a policy that determines the pathway to legally extract electronic evidence with minimal disruption Identify the correct sequence of steps involved in forensic readiness planning.
- A. 3-->1-->4-->5-->8-->2-->6-->7
- B. 2-->3-->1-->4-->6-->5-->7-->8
- C. 1-->2-->3-->4-->5-->6-->7-->8
- D. 3-->4-->8-->7-->6-->1-->2-->5
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct sequence of steps involved in forensic readiness planning, based on the activities described, is as follows:
* Identify the potential evidence required for an incident.
* Determine the source of the evidence.
* Define a policy that determines the pathway to legally extract electronic evidence with minimal disruption.
* Establish a policy for securely handling and storing the collected evidence.
* Identify if the incident requires full or formal investigation.
* Train the staff to handle the incident and preserve the evidence.
* Create a special process for documenting the procedure.
* Establish a legal advisory board to guide the investigation process.This sequence ensures that an organization is prepared to handle incidents efficiently, with a focus on identifying relevant evidence and the legal context of its collection, followed by staff training and the establishment of guiding policies and advisory boards.References:Incident Handler (CREST CPTIA) courses and study guides include discussions on forensic readiness planning, highlighting the importance of preparing organizations for effective legal and technical handling of incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Alice, an analyst, shared information with security operation managers and network operations center (NOC) staff for protecting the organizational resources against various threats. Information shared by Alice was highly technical and include threat actor TTPs, malware campaigns, tools used by threat actors, and so on.
Which of the following types of threat intelligence was shared by Alice?
- A. Technical threat intelligence
- B. Operational threat intelligence
- C. Strategic threat intelligence
- D. Tactical threat intelligence
Answer: D
Explanation:
The information shared by Alice, which was highly technical and included details such as threat actor tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs), malware campaigns, and tools used by threat actors, aligns with the definition of tactical threat intelligence. This type of intelligence focuses on the immediate, technical indicators of threats and is used bysecurity operation managers and network operations center (NOC) staff to protect organizational resources. Tactical threat intelligence is crucial for configuring security solutions and adjusting defense mechanisms to counteract known threats effectively.References:
* "Tactical Cyber Intelligence," Cyber Threat Intelligence Network, Inc.
* "Cyber Threat Intelligence for Front Line Defenders: A Practical Guide," by James Dietle
NEW QUESTION # 39
Cybersol Technologies initiated a cyber-threat intelligence program with a team of threat intelligence analysts. During the process, the analysts started converting the raw data into useful information by applying various techniques, such as machine-based techniques, and statistical methods.
In which of the following phases of the threat intelligence lifecycle is the threat intelligence team currently working?
- A. Planning and direction
- B. Analysis and production
- C. Dissemination and integration
- D. Processing and exploitation
Answer: D
Explanation:
The phase where threat intelligence analysts convert raw data into useful information by applying various techniques, such as machine learning or statistical methods, is known as 'Processing and Exploitation'. During this phase, collected data is processed, standardized, and analyzed to extract relevant information. This is a critical step in the threat intelligence lifecycle, transforming raw data into a format that can be further analyzed and turned into actionable intelligence in the subsequent 'Analysis and Production' phase.References:
* "Intelligence Analysis for Problem Solvers" by John E. McLaughlin
* "The Cyber Intelligence Tradecraft Project: The State of Cyber Intelligence Practices in the United States (Unclassified Summary)" by the Carnegie Mellon University's Software Engineering Institute
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following best describes an email issued as an attack medium, in which several messages are sent to a mailbox to cause overflow?
- A. Smurf attack
- B. Email-bombing
- C. Spoofing
- D. Masquerading
Answer: B
Explanation:
Email-bombing refers to the attack where the attacker sends a massive volume of emails to a specific email address or mail server in order to overflow the mailbox or overwhelm the server, potentially causing it to fail or deny service to legitimate users. This attack can disrupt communications and, in some cases, lead to the targeted email account being disabled. Masquerading involves pretending to be another legitimate user, spoofing is the creation of emails (or other communications) with a forged sender address, and a smurf attack is a specific type of Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack that exploits Internet Protocol (IP) and Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) to flood a target with traffic. Email-bombing specifically targets email services with the goal of causing disruption by overflowing inboxes.References:CREST CPTIA courses and study guides often include discussions on various attack vectors used by cybercriminals, including email- based threats and their impact on organizational security.
NEW QUESTION # 41
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