Dumps for Free Palo Alto Networks PCCET Practice Exam Questions [Nov 03, 2023]
PCCET Dumps PDF And Certification Training
Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician (PCCET) exam is a certification exam designed to test the basic knowledge and skills required for entry-level cybersecurity professionals. PCCET exam is offered by Palo Alto Networks, a leading provider of cybersecurity solutions for organizations across the world. Palo Alto Networks Certified Cybersecurity Entry-level Technician certification is becoming increasingly popular among cybersecurity professionals who want to demonstrate their knowledge and skills in the field.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?
- A. identity security
- B. compute security
- C. network protection
- D. dynamic computing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Prisma Cloud comprises four pillars:
* Visibility, governance, and compliance. Gain deep visibility into the security posture of multicloud environments. Track everything that gets deployed with an automated asset inventory, and maintain compliance with out-of-the-box governance policies that enforce good behavior across your environments.
* Compute security. Secure hosts, containers, and serverless workloads throughout the application lifecycle. Detect and prevent risks by integrating vulnerability intelligence into your integrated development environment (IDE), software configuration management (SCM), and CI/CD workflows. Enforce machine learning-based runtime protection to protect applications and workloads in real time.
* Network protection. Continuously monitor network activity for anomalous behavior, enforce microservice-aware micro-segmentation, and implement industry-leading firewall protection. Protect the network perimeter and the connectivity between containers and hosts.
* Identity security. Monitor and leverage user and entity behavior analytics (UEBA) across your environments to detect and block malicious actions. Gain visibility into and enforce governance p
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which Palo Alto subscription service identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment?
- A. DNS Security
- B. Threat Prevention
- C. WildFire
- D. URL Filtering
Answer: C
Explanation:
"The WildFire cloud-based malware analysis environment is a cyber threat prevention service that identifies unknown malware, zero-day exploits, and advanced persistent threats (APTs) through static and dynamic analysis in a scalable, virtual environment. WildFire automatically disseminates updated protections in near-real time to immediately prevent threats from spreading; this occurs without manual intervention"
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which organizational function is responsible for security automation and eventual vetting of the solution to help ensure consistency through machine-driven responses to security issues?
- A. SecOps
- B. NetOps
- C. SecDevOps
- D. DevOps
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security operations (SecOps) is a necessary function for protecting the digital way of life, for global businesses and customers. SecOps requires continuous improvement in operations to handle fast-evolving threats. SecOps needs to arm security operations professionals with high-fidelity intelligence, contextual data, and automated prevention workflows to quickly identify and respond to these threats. SecOps must leverage automation to reduce strain on analysts and execute the Security Operation Center's (SOC) mission to identify, investigate, and mitigate threats.
NEW QUESTION # 38
What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?
- A. check its execution policy
- B. run a dynamic analysis
- C. run a static analysis
- D. send the executable to WildFire
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 39
What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?
- A. requires the use of only one cloud service provider
- B. enables on-demand network services
- C. defines any network service
- D. requires the use of two or more cloud service providers
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Cloud computing is not a location but rather a pool of resources that can be rapidly provisioned in an automated, on-demand manner.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?
- A. Data-at-rest encryption standards
- B. Vulnerability scanning and management
- C. Types of physical storage media used
- D. Acceptable use of the SaaS application
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)
- A. Denial of Service
- B. Data Exposure Control
- C. DevOps
- D. Data Loss Prevention
- E. Threat Prevention
Answer: B,D,E
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which classification of IDS/IPS uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts?
- A. Statistical-based
- B. Behavior-based
- C. Anomaly-based
- D. Knowledge-based
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
A knowledge-based system uses a database of known vulnerabilities and attack profiles to identify intrusion attempts. These types of systems have lower false-alarm rates than behavior-based systems but must be continually updated with new attack signatures to be effective.
A behavior-based system uses a baseline of normal network activity to identify unusual patterns or levels of network activity that may be indicative of an intrusion attempt.
These types of systems are more adaptive than knowledge-based systems and therefore may be more effective in detecting previously unknown vulnerabilities and attacks, but they have a much higher false-positive rate than knowledge-based systems.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Given the graphic, match each stage of the cyber-attack lifecycle to its description.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 44
What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?
- A. Dedicated Hosts
- B. Multiplexing
- C. Dedicated Networks
- D. Multi-tenancy
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?
- A. cyberterrorist
- B. state-affiliated group
- C. hacktivist
- D. cybercriminal
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 46
In addition to integrating the network and endpoint components, what other component does Cortex integrate to speed up IoC investigations?
- A. Switch
- B. Cloud
- C. Infrastructure
- D. Computer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cortex XDR breaks the silos of traditional detection and response by natively integrating network, endpoint, and cloud data to stop sophisticated attacks
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)
- A. Terminal shell types on endpoints
- B. Users
- C. /etc/shadow files
- D. Services
Answer: B,D
NEW QUESTION # 48
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?
- A. Security
- B. Cloud
- C. Management
- D. Network
Answer: A
Explanation:
A SASE solution converges networking and security services into one unified, cloud-delivered solution (see Figure 3-12) that includes the following:
* Networking
* Software-defined wide-area networks (SD-WANs)
* Virtual private networks (VPNs)
* Zero Trust network access (ZTNA)
* Quality of Service (QoS)
* Security
* Firewall as a service (FWaaS)
* Domain Name System (DNS) security
* Threat prevention
* Secure web gateway (SWG)
* Data loss prevention (DLP)
* Cloud access security broker (CASB)
NEW QUESTION # 49
Match each tunneling protocol to its definition.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 50
From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?
- A. PAN-DB
- B. MineMeld
- C. BrightCloud
- D. Unit 52
Answer: A
Explanation:
When you enable URL Filtering, all web traffic is compared against the URL Filtering database, PAN-DB, which contains millions of URLs that have been grouped into about 65 categories.
NEW QUESTION # 51
In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?
- A. True-positive
- B. False-negative
- C. False-positive
- D. True-negative
Answer: C
Explanation:
In anti-malware, a false positive incorrectly identifies a legitimate file or application as malware. A false negative incorrectly identifies malware as a legitimate file or application. In intrusion detection, a false positive incorrectly identifies legitimate traffic as a threat, and a false negative incorrectly identifies a threat as legitimate traffic.
NEW QUESTION # 52
In which situation would a dynamic routing protocol be the quickest way to configure routes on a router?
- A. the network needs backup routes
- B. the network is large
- C. the network is small
- D. the network has low bandwidth requirements
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
A static routing protocol requires that routes be created and updated manually on a router or other network device. If a static route is down, traffic can't be automatically rerouted unless an alternate route has been configured. Also, if the route is congested, traffic can't be automatically rerouted over the less congested alternate route. Static routing is practical only in very small networks or for very limited, special-case routing scenarios (for example, a destination that's used as a backup route or is reachable only via a single router).
However, static routing has low bandwidth requirements (routing information isn't broadcast across the network) and some built-in security (users can route only to destinations that are specified in statically defined routes).
NEW QUESTION # 53
A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure. The servers, databases, and code of that application are hosted and maintained by the vendor.
Which NIST cloud service model is this?
- A. SaaS
- B. PaaS
- C. IaaS
- D. CaaS
Answer: A
Explanation:
SaaS - User responsible for only the data, vendor responsible for rest
NEW QUESTION # 54
TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?
- A. Data Link
- B. Application
- C. Transport
- D. Session
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?
- A. business
- B. people
- C. technology
- D. interfaces
Answer: D
Explanation:
The six pillars include:
1. Business (goals and outcomes)
2. People (who will perform the work)
3. Interfaces (external functions to help achieve goals)
4. Visibility (information needed to accomplish goals)
5. Technology (capabilities needed to provide visibility and enable people)
6. Processes (tactical steps required to execute on goals)
NEW QUESTION # 56
What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)
- A. runs without any vulnerability issues
- B. is hardened against cyber attacks
- C. runs within an operating system
- D. allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION # 57
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The PCCET exam focuses on testing the basic knowledge and skills required to understand and implement cybersecurity solutions. PCCET exam covers a wide range of topics such as network security, cloud security, endpoint security, and threat intelligence. PCCET exam is designed to test the candidate's understanding of cybersecurity concepts, as well as their ability to apply them in real-world scenarios.
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Practice Exam PCCET Realistic Dumps Verified Questions: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1IkyRXAG3lfQ8NqdijekFg5orYWFQNqAC
