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Prepare CS0-003 Exam Questions [2024] Recently Updated Questions
CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification is a globally recognized certification that is designed for IT professionals who are involved in the cybersecurity field. It is an intermediate-level certification that covers a wide range of cybersecurity topics, including threat management, vulnerability management, incident response, and compliance and assessment. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification is ideal for professionals who are looking to advance their careers in cybersecurity and want to demonstrate their skills and knowledge in this field.
CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification exam, also known as the CS0-003 exam, is a well-respected industry certification that validates individuals’ expertise in the field of cybersecurity analysis. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam is designed to assess the candidate’s ability to demonstrate their knowledge and skills in identifying and mitigating cybersecurity threats, vulnerabilities and risks. CS0-003 exam is globally recognized and is aimed at professionals who are looking to enhance their knowledge and skills in the cybersecurity domain.
The CS0-003 exam covers a wide range of topics related to cybersecurity, including threat management, vulnerability management, incident response, and compliance and assessment. To pass the exam, candidates are required to demonstrate their ability to identify and analyze cybersecurity threats, and to implement effective security measures to mitigate them. CS0-003 exam also tests the candidates' knowledge of security tools and technologies, as well as their ability to communicate security-related issues to technical and non-technical stakeholders.
NEW QUESTION # 41
During the forensic analysis of a compromised machine, a security analyst discovers some binaries that are exhibiting abnormal behaviors. After extracting the strings, the analyst finds unexpected content. Which of the following is the next step the analyst should take?
- A. Run an antivirus against the binaries to check for malware.
- B. Validate the binaries' hashes from a trusted source.
- C. Only allow binaries on the approve list to execute.
- D. Use file integrity monitoring to validate the digital signature
Answer: B
Explanation:
Validating the binaries' hashes from a trusted source is the next step the analyst should take after discovering some binaries that are exhibiting abnormal behaviors and finding unexpected content in their strings. A hash is a fixed-length value that uniquely represents the contents of a file or message. By comparing the hashes of the binaries on the compromised machine with the hashes of the original or legitimate binaries from a trusted source, such as the software vendor or repository, the analyst can determine whether the binaries have been modified or replaced by malicious code. If the hashes do not match, it indicates that the binaries have been tampered with and may contain malware.
NEW QUESTION # 42
A software developer has been deploying web applications with common security risks to include insufficient logging capabilities. Which of the following actions would be most effective to
reduce risks associated with the application development?
- A. Deploy compensating controls into the environment.
- B. Implement server-side logging and automatic updates.
- C. Conduct regular code reviews using OWASP best practices.
- D. Perform static analyses using an integrated development environment.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Conducting regular code reviews using OWASP best practices is the most effective action to reduce risks associated with the application development. Code reviews are a systematic examination of the source code of an application to detect and fix errors, vulnerabilities, and weaknesses that may compromise the security, functionality, or performance of the application. Code reviews can help to improve the quality and security of the code, as well as to identify and remediate common security risks, such as insufficient logging capabilities. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a global nonprofit organization that provides free and open resources, tools, standards, and best practices for web application security. OWASP best practices for logging include following a common logging format and approach, logging relevant security events and data, protecting log data from unauthorized access or modification, and using log analysis and monitoring tools to detect and respond to security incidents. By following OWASP best practices for logging, developers can ensure that their web applications have sufficient and effective logging capabilities that can help to prevent, detect, and mitigate security threats.
NEW QUESTION # 43
An analyst recommends that an EDR agent collect the source IP address, make a connection to the firewall, and create a policy to block the malicious source IP address across the entire network automatically. Which of the following is the best option to help the analyst implement this recommendation?
- A. IoC
- B. SIEM
- C. SOAR
- D. SLA
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the best option to help the analyst implement the recommendation, as it reflects the software solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows and automate repetitive tasks. SOAR is a term coined by Gartner in 2015 to describe a technology that combines the functions of security incident response platforms, security orchestration and automation platforms, and threat intelligence platforms in one offering.
SOAR solutions help security teams to collect inputs from various sources, such as EDR agents, firewalls, or SIEM systems, and perform analysis and triage using a combination of human and machine power. SOAR solutions also allow security teams to define and execute incident response procedures in a digital workflow format, using automation to perform low-level tasks or actions, such as blocking an IP address or quarantining a device. SOAR solutions can help security teams to improve efficiency, consistency, and scalability of their operations, as well as reduce mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR) to threats. The other options are not as suitable as SOAR, as they do not match the description or purpose of the recommendation. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM solutions can help security teams to gain visibility, correlation, and context of their security data, but they do not provide automation or orchestration features like SOAR solutions. SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer, such as the quality, availability, or performance of the service. SLAs can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, and improve productivity and relationships, but they do not help to implement technical recommendations like SOAR solutions. IoC (Indicator of Compromise) is a piece of data or evidence that suggests a system or network has been compromised by a threat actor, such as an IP address, a file hash, or a registry key. IoCs can help to identify and analyze malicious activities or incidents, but they do not help to implement response actions like SOAR solutions.
NEW QUESTION # 44
An organization supports a large number of remote users. Which of the following is the best option to protect the data on the remote users' laptops?
- A. Require the use of VPNs.
- B. Use whole disk encryption.
- C. Require employees to sign an NDA.
- D. Implement a DLP solution.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Using whole disk encryption is the best option to protect the data on the remote users' laptops. Whole disk encryption is a technique that encrypts all data on a hard disk drive, including the operating system, applications and files. Whole disk encryption can prevent unauthorized access to the data if the laptop is lost, stolen or compromised. Whole disk encryption can also protect the data from physical attacks, such as removing the hard disk and connecting it to another device .
NEW QUESTION # 45
A security analyst has found the following suspicious DNS traffic while analyzing a packet capture:
* DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active.
* The mean time between queries is less than one second.
* The average query length exceeds 100 characters.
Which of the following attacks most likely occurred?
- A. DNS exfiltration
- B. DNS spoofing
- C. DNS zone transfer
- D. DNS poisoning
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
DNS exfiltration is a technique that uses the DNS protocol to transfer data from a compromised network or device to an attacker-controlled server. DNS exfiltration can bypass firewall rules and security products that do not inspect DNS traffic. The characteristics of the suspicious DNS traffic in the question match the indicators of DNS exfiltration, such as:
DNS traffic while a tunneling session is active: This implies that the DNS protocol is being used to create a covert channel for data transfer.
The mean time between queries is less than one second: This implies that the DNS queries are being sent at a high frequency to maximize the amount of data transferred.
The average query length exceeds 100 characters: This implies that the DNS queries are encoding large amounts of data in the subdomains or other fields of the DNS packets.
Official References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/bypassing-security-products-via-dns-data-exfiltration/
https://www.reddit.com/r/CompTIA/comments/nvjuzt/dns_exfiltration_explanation/
NEW QUESTION # 46
A company is implementing a vulnerability management program and moving from an on-premises environment to a hybrid IaaS cloud environment. Which of the following implications should be considered on the new hybrid environment?
- A. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners
- B. Existing vulnerability scanners cannot scan laaS systems
- C. Vulnerability scans on cloud environments should be performed from the cloud
- D. The current scanners should be migrated to the cloud
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Cloud-specific misconfigurations are security issues that arise from improper or inadequate configuration of cloud resources, such as storage buckets, databases, virtual machines, or containers. Cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners that are designed for on-premises environments, as they may not have the visibility or access to the cloud resources or the cloud provider's APIs.
Therefore, one of the implications that should be considered on the new hybrid environment is that cloud-specific misconfigurations may not be detected by the current scanners.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A company receives a penetration test report summary from a third party. The report summary indicates a proxy has some patches that need to be applied. The proxy is sitting in a rack and is not being used, as the company has replaced it with a new one. The CVE score of the vulnerability on the proxy is a 9.8. Which of the following best practices should the company follow with this proxy?
- A. Decomission the proxy.
- B. Migrate the proxy to the cloud.
- C. Patch the proxy
- D. Leave the proxy as is.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best practice that the company should follow with this proxy is to decommission the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy involves removing or disposing of the proxy from the rack and the network, as well as deleting or wiping any data or configuration on the proxy. Decommissioning the proxy can help eliminate the vulnerability on the proxy, as well as reduce the attack surface, complexity, or cost of maintaining the network. Decommissioning the proxy can also free up space or resources for other devices or systems that are in use or needed by the company.
NEW QUESTION # 48
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
- A. Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS
- B. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
- C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
- D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header
Answer: B
Explanation:
The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A vulnerability management team is unable to patch all vulnerabilities found during their weekly scans. Using the third-party scoring system described below, the team patches the most urgent vulnerabilities:
Additionally, the vulnerability management team feels that the metrics Smear and Channing are less important than the others, so these will be lower in priority. Which of the following vulnerabilities should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system?
- A. InLoud:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: Yes
Channing: No - B. PBleach:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: No
Smear: No
Channing: Yes - C. ENameless:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: No
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No - D. TSpirit:
Cobain: Yes
Grohl: Yes
Novo: Yes
Smear: No
Channing: No
Answer: D
Explanation:
The vulnerability that should be patched first, given the above third-party scoring system, is:
TSpirit: Cobain: Yes Grohl: Yes Novo: Yes Smear: No Channing: No
This vulnerability has three out of five metrics marked as Yes, which indicates a high severity level. The metrics Cobain, Grohl, and Novo are more important than Smear and Channing, according to the vulnerability management team. Therefore, this vulnerability poses a greater risk than the other vulnerabilities and should be patched first.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A security analyst reviews the latest vulnerability scans and observes there are vulnerabilities with similar CVSSv3 scores but different base score metrics. Which of the following attack vectors should the analyst remediate first?
- A. CVSS 3.0/AVP/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S U/C:H/I:H/A:H
- B. CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
- C. CVSS 3.0/AV:A/AC .L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H
- D. CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S;U/C:H/I:H/A:H
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
CVSS 3.0/AV:N/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H is the attack vector that the analyst should remediate first, as it has the highest CVSSv3 score of 8.1. CVSSv3 (Common Vulnerability Scoring System version 3) is a standard framework for rating the severity of vulnerabilities, based on various metrics that reflect the characteristics and impact of the vulnerability. The CVSSv3 score is calculated from three groups of metrics:
Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metrics are mandatory and reflect the intrinsic qualities of the vulnerability, such as how it can be exploited, what privileges are required, and what impact it has on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. The Temporal metrics are optional and reflect the current state of the vulnerability, such as whether there is a known exploit, a patch, or a workaround. The Environmental metrics are also optional and reflect the context of the vulnerability in a specific environment, such as how it affects the asset value, security requirements, or mitigating controls. The Base metrics produce a score ranging from 0 to 10, which can then be modified by scoring the Temporal and Environmental metrics. A CVSS score is also represented as a vector string, a compressed textual representation of the values used to derive the score.
The attack vector in question has the following Base metrics:
Attack Vector (AV): Network (N). This means that the vulnerability can be exploited remotely over a network connection.
Attack Complexity (AC): Low (L). This means that the attack does not require any special conditions or changes to the configuration of the target system.
Privileges Required (PR): Low (L). This means that the attacker needs some privileges on the target system to exploit the vulnerability, such as user-level access.
User Interaction (UI): None (N). This means that the attack does not require any user action or involvement to succeed.
Scope (S): Unchanged (U). This means that the impact of the vulnerability is confined to the same security authority as the vulnerable component, such as an application or an operating system.
Confidentiality Impact : High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of confidentiality, such as unauthorized disclosure of all data on the system.
Integrity Impact (I): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of integrity, such as unauthorized modification or deletion of all data on the system.
Availability Impact (A): High (H). This means that the vulnerability results in a total loss of availability, such as denial of service or system crash.
Using these metrics, we can calculate the Base score using this formula:
Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(Impact + Exploitability), 10])
Where:
Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - Confidentiality) x (1 - Integrity) x (1 - Availability))] Exploitability = 8.22 x Attack Vector x Attack Complexity x Privileges Required x User Interaction Using this formula, we get:
Impact = 6.42 x [1 - ((1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56) x (1 - 0.56))] = 5.9
Exploitability = 8.22 x 0.85 x 0.77 x 0.62 x 0.85 = 2.8
Base Score = Roundup(Minimum[(5.9 + 2.8), 10]) = Roundup(8.7) = 8.8
Therefore, this attack vector has a Base score of 8.8, which is higher than any other option.
The other attack vectors have lower Base scores, as they have different values for some of the Base metrics:
CVSS:3.0/AV:P/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.2, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Physical), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having physical access to the target system.
CVSS:3.0/AV:A/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 7.4, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Adjacent Network), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by being on the same physical or logical network as the target system.
CVSS:3.0/AV:L/AC:L/PR:L/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:H has a Base score of 6.8, as it has a lower value for Attack Vector (Local), which means that the vulnerability can only be exploited by having local access to the target system, such as through a terminal or a command shell.
NEW QUESTION # 51
A security analyst receives an alert for suspicious activity on a company laptop An excerpt of the log is shown below:
Which of the following has most likely occurred?
- A. A credential-stealing website was visited.
- B. A phishing link in an email was clicked
- C. An Office document with a malicious macro was opened.
- D. A web browser vulnerability was exploited.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
An Office document with a malicious macro was opened is the most likely explanation for the suspicious activity on the company laptop, as it reflects the common technique of using macros to execute PowerShell commands that download and run malware. A macro is a piece of code that can automate tasks or perform actions in an Office document, such as a Word file or an Excel spreadsheet. Macros can be useful and legitimate, but they can also be abused by threat actors to deliver malware or perform malicious actions on the system. A malicious macro can be embedded in an Office document that is sent as an attachment in a phishing email or hosted on a compromised website. When the user opens the document, they may be prompted to enable macros or content, which will trigger the execution of the malicious code. The malicious macro can then use PowerShell, which is a scripting language and command-line shell that is built into Windows, to perform various tasks, such as downloading and running malware from a remote URL, bypassing security controls, or establishing persistence on the system. The log excerpt shows that PowerShell was used to download a string from a URL using the WebClient.DownloadString method, which is a common way to fetch and execute malicious code from the internet. The log also shows that PowerShell was used to invoke an expression (iex) that contains obfuscated code, which is another common way to evade detection and analysis.
The other options are not as likely as an Office document with a malicious macro was opened, as they do not match the evidence in the log excerpt. A credential-stealing website was visited is possible, but it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL. A phishing link in an email was clicked is also possible, but it does not explain what happened after the link was clicked or how PowerShell was involved. A web browser vulnerability was exploited is unlikely, as it does not explain why PowerShell was used to download and execute code from a URL.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A security analyst is trying to identify anomalies on the network routing. Which of the following functions can the analyst use on a shell script to achieve the objective most accurately?
- A. function x() { info=$(geoiplookup $1) && echo "$1 | $info" }
- B. function x() { info=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk -F "/" 'END{print $5}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
- C. function x() { info=$(dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" }
- D. function x() { info=$(traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk 'END{print $1}') && echo "$1 | $info" }
Answer: C
Explanation:
The function that can be used on a shell script to identify anomalies on the network routing most accurately is:
function x() { info=(dig(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F ".in-addr" '{print $1} ').origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short) && echo "$1 | $info" }
This function takes an IP address as an argument and performs two DNS lookups using the dig command. The first lookup uses the -x option to perform a reverse DNS lookup and get the hostname associated with the IP address. The second lookup uses the origin.asn.cymru.com domain to get the autonomous system number (ASN) and other information related to the IP address. The function then prints the IP address and the ASN information, which can help identify any routing anomalies or inconsistencies
NEW QUESTION # 53
After conducting a cybersecurity risk assessment for a new software request, a Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) decided the risk score would be too high. The CISO refused the software request. Which of the following risk management principles did the CISO select?
- A. Avoid
- B. Mitigate
- C. Transfer
- D. Accept
Answer: A
Explanation:
Avoid is a risk management principle that describes the decision or action of not engaging in an activity or accepting a risk that is deemed too high or unacceptable. Avoiding a risk can eliminate the possibility or impact of the risk, as well as the need for any further risk management actions. In this case, the CISO decided the risk score would be too high and refused the software request. This indicates that the CISO selected the avoid principle for risk management.
NEW QUESTION # 54
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report for a server environment with the following entries:
Which of the following systems should be prioritized for patching first?
- A. 54.74.110.228
- B. 10.101.27.98
- C. 54.74.110.26
- D. 54.73.225.17
Answer: A
Explanation:
The system that should be prioritized for patching first is 54.74.110.228, as it has the highest number and severity of vulnerabilities among the four systems listed in the vulnerability report. According to the report, this system has 12 vulnerabilities, with 8 critical, 3 high, and 1 medium severity ratings. The critical vulnerabilities include CVE-2019-0708 (BlueKeep), CVE-2019-1182 (DejaBlue), CVE-2017-0144 (EternalBlue), and CVE-2017-0145 (EternalRomance), which are all remote code execution vulnerabilities that can allow an attacker to compromise the system without any user interaction or authentication. These vulnerabilities pose a high risk to the system and should be patched as soon as possible.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following is the best way to begin preparation for a report titled "What We Learned" regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach?
- A. Decide on the color scheme that will effectively communicate the metrics
- B. Determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for
- C. Include a table of contents outlining the entire report
- D. Include references and sources of information on the first page
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The best way to begin preparation for a report titled "What We Learned" regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of technical knowledge, understanding, or interest in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience can help tailor the report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. For example, a report for executive management may be more concise, high-level, and business-oriented than a report for technical staff or peers.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following is an important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident?
- A. Determine if an internal mistake was made and who did it so they do not repeat the error
- B. Identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures
- C. Present all legal evidence collected and turn it over to iaw enforcement
- D. Discuss the financial impact of the incident to determine if security controls are well spent
Answer: B
Explanation:
An important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident is to identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures. The lessons-learned step is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response activities and outcomes, as well as identifying and documenting any strengths, weaknesses, gaps, or best practices. Identifying any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures can help enhance the security posture, readiness, or capability of the organization for future incidents
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following best describes the goal of a tabletop exercise?
- A. To test possible incident scenarios and how to react properly
- B. To perform attack exercises to check response effectiveness
- C. To understand existing threat actors and how to replicate their techniques
- D. To check the effectiveness of the business continuity plan
Answer: A
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a type of simulation exercise that involves testing possible incident scenarios and how to react properly, without actually performing any actions or using any resources. A tabletop exercise is usually conducted by a facilitator who presents a realistic scenario to a group of participants, such as a cyberattack, a natural disaster, or a data breach. The participants then discuss and evaluate their roles, responsibilities, plans, procedures, and policies for responding to the incident, as well as the potential impacts and outcomes. A tabletop exercise can help identify strengths and weaknesses in the incident response plan, improve communication and coordination among the stakeholders, raise awareness and preparedness for potential incidents, and provide feedback and recommendations for improvement.
NEW QUESTION # 58
An employee accessed a website that caused a device to become infected with invasive malware. The incident response analyst has:
* created the initial evidence log.
* disabled the wireless adapter on the device.
* interviewed the employee, who was unable to identify the website that was accessed
* reviewed the web proxy traffic logs.
Which of the following should the analyst do to remediate the infected device?
- A. Update the system firmware and reimage the hardware.
- B. Delete the user profile and restore data from backup.
- C. Configure the system to use a proxy server for Internet access.
- D. Install an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware is the best action to perform to remediate the infected device, as it helps to ensure that the device is restored to a clean and secure state and that any traces of malware are removed. Firmware is a type of software that controls the low-level functions of a hardware device, such as a motherboard, hard drive, or network card. Firmware can be updated or flashed to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Reimaging is a process of erasing and restoring the data on a storage device, such as a hard drive or a solid state drive, using an image file that contains a copy of the operating system, applications, settings, and files. Reimaging can help to recover from system failures, data corruption, or malware infections. Updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware can help to remediate the infected device by removing any malicious code or configuration changes that may have been made by the malware, as well as restoring any missing or damaged files or settings that may have been affected by the malware. This can help to prevent further damage, data loss, or compromise of the device or the network. The other actions are not as effective or appropriate as updating the system firmware and reimaging the hardware, as they do not address the root cause of the infection or ensure that the device is fully cleaned and secured. Installing an additional malware scanner that will send email alerts to the analyst may help to detect and remove some types of malware, but it may not be able to catch all malware variants or remove them completely. It may also create conflicts or performance issues with other security tools or systems on the device. Configuring the system to use a proxy server for Internet access may help to filter or monitor some types of malicious traffic or requests, but it may not prevent or remove malware that has already infected the device or that uses other methods of communication or propagation. Deleting the user profile and restoring data from backup may help to recover some data or settings that may have been affected by the malware, but it may not remove malware that has infected other parts of the system or that has persisted on the device.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following tools would work best to prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization?
- A. PAM
- B. IDS
- C. PKI
- D. DLP
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Data loss prevention (DLP) is a tool that can prevent the exposure of PII outside of an organization by monitoring, detecting, and blocking sensitive data in motion, in use, or at rest.
NEW QUESTION # 60
A user downloads software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. Which of the following has the user become?
- A. Insider threat
- B. Hacklivist
- C. Advanced persistent threat
- D. Script kiddie
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The user has become an insider threat by downloading software that contains malware onto a computer that eventually infects numerous other systems. An insider threat is a person or entity that has legitimate access to an organization's systems, networks, or resources and uses that access to cause harm or damage to the organization. An insider threat can be intentional or unintentional, malicious or negligent, and can result from various actions or behaviors, such as downloading unauthorized software, violating security policies, stealing data, sabotaging systems, or collaborating with external attackers.
NEW QUESTION # 61
After completing a review of network activity. the threat hunting team discovers a device on the network that sends an outbound email via a mail client to a non-company email address daily
at 10:00 p.m. Which of the following is potentially occurring?
- A. Data exfiltration
- B. Irregular peer-to-peer communication
- C. Rogue device on the network
- D. Abnormal OS process behavior
Answer: A
Explanation:
Data exfiltration is the theft or unauthorized transfer or movement of data from a device or network. It can occur as part of an automated attack or manually, on-site or through an internet connection, and involve various methods. It can affect personal or corporate data, such as sensitive or confidential information. Data exfiltration can be prevented or detected by using compression, encryption, authentication, authorization, and other controls1
The network activity shows that a device on the network is sending an outbound email via a mail client to a non-company email address daily at 10:00 p.m. This could indicate that the device is compromised by malware or an insider threat, and that the email is used to exfiltrate data from the network to an external party. The email could contain attachments, links, or hidden data that contain the stolen information. The timing of the email could be designed to avoid detection by normal network monitoring or security systems.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A security analyst is tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation. The relevant company security policies are shown below:
Security Policy 1006: Vulnerability Management
1. The Company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics (Exploitability and Impact) to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities.
2. In situations where a choice must be made between confidentiality and availability, the Company shall prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data.
3. The Company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available system.
According to the security policy, which of the following vulnerabilities should be the highest priority to patch?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the security policy, the company shall use the CVSSv3.1 Base Score Metrics to prioritize the remediation of security vulnerabilities. Option C has the highest CVSSv3.1 Base Score of 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The company shall also prioritize confidentiality of data over availability of systems and data, and option C has a high impact on confidentiality (C:H). Finally, the company shall prioritize patching of publicly available systems and services over patching of internally available systems, and option C affects a public-facing web server. Official Reference: https://www.first.org/cvss/
NEW QUESTION # 63
The developers recently deployed new code to three web servers. A daffy automated external device scan report shows server vulnerabilities that are failure items according to PCI DSS.
If the venerability is not valid, the analyst must take the proper steps to get the scan clean.
If the venerability is valid, the analyst must remediate the finding.
After reviewing the information provided in the network diagram, select the STEP 2 tab to complete the simulation by selecting the correct Validation Result and Remediation Action for each server listed using the drop-down options.
INTRUCTIONS:
The simulation includes 2 steps.
Step1:Review the information provided in the network diagram and then move to the STEP 2 tab.
STEP 2: Given the Scenario, determine which remediation action is required to address the vulnerability.
Answer:
Explanation:
NEW QUESTION # 64
An incident response team found IoCs in a critical server. The team needs to isolate and collect technical evidence for further investigation. Which of the following pieces of data should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server?
- A. Hard disk
- B. Static IP address
- C. Primary boot partition
- D. Routing table
- E. Malicious tiles
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
The hard disk is the piece of data that should be collected first in order to preserve sensitive information before isolating the server. The hard disk contains all the files and data stored on the server, which may include evidence of malicious activity, such as malware installation, data exfiltration, or configuration changes. The hard disk should be collected using proper forensic techniques, such as creating an image or a copy of the disk and maintaining its integrity using hashing algorithms.
NEW QUESTION # 65
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