Free Aug-2026 UPDATED CompTIA N10-009 Exam Questions & Answer
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NEW QUESTION # 46
A network administrator needs to create a way to redirect a network resource that has been on the local network but is now hosted as a SaaS solution. Which of the following records should be used to accomplish the task?
- A. TXT
- B. AAA
- C. PTR
- D. CNAME
Answer: D
Explanation:
A CNAME record creates an alias from the old internal hostname to the new SaaS hostname, seamlessly redirecting users without changing the original name they access.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A company is opening a new site that needs to be divided into subnets that accommodate 75 hosts each.
Which of the following is the most efficient subnet?
- A. 192.168.13.0/26
- B. 192.168.13.0/28
- C. 192.168.13.0/25
- D. 192.168.13.0/27
Answer: C
Explanation:
To support 75 hosts per subnet , you must choose a subnet size that provides at least 75 usable IP addresses.
In IPv4, usable hosts per subnet equals 2^(host bits) # 2 (subtracting network and broadcast). A /25 leaves 7 host bits (32-25 = 7), giving 2^7 # 2 = 128 # 2 = 126 usable hosts , which meets the requirement and is the smallest (most efficient) option listed that does so. A /26 leaves 6 host bits, giving 62 usable hosts , which is insufficient. A /27 gives 30 usable , and a /28 gives 14 usable , both far below 75. Network+ subnetting objectives emphasize selecting the smallest subnet that satisfies the host requirement to conserve address space while meeting growth and design constraints. Therefore, 192.168.13.0/25 is the most efficient option that accommodates at least 75 hosts per subnet.
NEW QUESTION # 48
After providing ausername and password, a user must input apasscode from a phone application. Which of the followingauthentication technologiesis used in this example?
- A. SAML
- B. MFA
- C. LDAP
- D. SSO
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This is an example ofMulti-Factor Authentication (MFA)because it requires:
* Something you know(username/password)
* Something you have(a phone-generated passcode)
Breakdown of Options:
* A. SSO (Single Sign-On)- Allowsone login for multiple services, butdoes not add a second authentication factor.
* B. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol)- Used fordirectory authentication,not MFA.
* C. MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication)-#Correct answer.Usesmultiple authentication factorsfor better security.
* D. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language)- Used forfederated identity management,not multi-factor authentication.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A user is unable to navigate to a website because the provided URL is not resolving to the correct IP address.
Other users are able to navigate to the intended website without issue. Which of the following is most likely causing this issue?
- A. Self-signed certificate
- B. Nameserver record
- C. Hosts file
- D. IP helperANS
Answer: C
Explanation:
Role of the Hosts File:
The hosts file is a local file on a computer that maps hostnames to IP addresses. It can be used to override DNS resolution by providing a static mapping of a hostname to an IP address.
Common Issues with the Hosts File:
If an incorrect IP address is mapped to a hostname in the hosts file, it can cause the computer to resolve the hostname to the wrong IP address. This can lead to navigation issues for specific websites while other users, relying on DNS, do not face the same problem.
Why Other Options are Less Likely:
Self-signed certificate: Relates to SSL/TLS and would cause a security warning, not a navigation failure.
Nameserver record: Affects all users, not just one.
IP helper: Used to forward DHCP requests and is unrelated to DNS resolution issues.
Troubleshooting Steps:
Check the hosts file on the affected user's computer (C:\Windows\System32\drivers\etc\hosts on Windows or
/etc/hosts on Unix/Linux).
Look for entries that map the problematic hostname to an incorrect IP address and correct or remove them.
References:
CompTIA Network+ study materials and system administration documentation.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A network administrator wants to configure a backup route in case the primary route fails. A dynamic routing protocol is not installed on the router. Which of the following routing features should the administrator choose to accomplish this task?
- A. Neighbor adjacency
- B. Administrative distance
- C. Link state flooding
- D. Hop count
Answer: B
Explanation:
* Introduction to Administrative Distance
* Administrative distance (AD) is a value used by routers to rank routes from different routing protocols. AD represents the trustworthiness of the source of the route. Lower AD values are more preferred. If a router has multiple routes to a destination from different sources, it will choose the route with the lowest AD.
* Static Routes and Backup Routes
* When a dynamic routing protocol is not used, static routes can be employed. Static routes are manually configured routes. To ensure a backup route, multiple static routes to the same destination can be configured with different AD values.
* Configuring Static Routes with Administrative Distance
* The primary route is configured with a lower AD value, making it the preferred route. The backup route is configured with a higher AD value. In the event of the primary route failure, the router will then use the backup route.
* Example Configuration:
plaintext
Copy code
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.1 1
ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.0.2 10
* In the above example, 192.168.1.0/24 is the destination network.
* 10.0.0.1 is the next-hop IP address for the primary route with an AD of 1.
* 10.0.0.2 is the next-hop IP address for the backup route with an AD of 10.
* Verification:
* After configuration, use the show ip route command to verify that the primary route is in use and the backup route is listed as a candidate for use if the primary route fails.
NEW QUESTION # 51
An IT department is considering implementing a SIEM solution to improve network security. The department wants to ensure that the SIEM system is able to ingest and analyze logs from all of the company's core devices. Which of the following is the most important consideration when selecting a SIEM solution?
- A. Compatibility
- B. Cost
- C. Easy to manage
- D. Features
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. Compatibility . A SIEM is only effective if it can successfully collect, normalize, and analyze data from the systems the organization relies on. Since the question specifically says the department wants the SIEM to ingest and analyze logs from all core devices , the most important factor is whether the SIEM is compatible with those devices, their log formats, and their supported methods of exporting events.
This includes support for common logging methods such as syslog , SNMP traps, API integrations, agent- based collection, and vendor-specific event formats. Even a SIEM with excellent features will not deliver value if it cannot properly receive and interpret logs from firewalls, routers, switches, servers, and security appliances already in use.
The other choices matter, but they come after compatibility. Ease of management is helpful for daily operations. Cost is always a practical concern. Features can improve visibility and automation. However, none of those benefits matter much if the SIEM cannot integrate with the organization's actual environment.
For Network+ exam purposes, when log ingestion across many device types is the requirement, the top selection criterion is compatibility . Without that foundation, correlation, alerting, and security analysis will be incomplete.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Following a fire in a data center, the cabling was replaced. Soon after, an administrator notices network issues. Which of the following are the most likely causes of the network issues? (Select two).
- A. The new RJ45 cables are a higher category than the old ones.
- B. The wrong transceiver type was used for the new termination.
- C. The HVAC system was not verified as fully functional after the fire.
- D. The switches are not the correct voltage.
- E. The RJ45 cables were replaced with unshielded cables.
- F. The VLAN database was not deleted before the equipment was brought back online.
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
* Unshielded cables (D) are more prone to interference and may not be suitable for certain environments, especially after a fire where interference could be heightened.
* Using the wrong transceiver (E) for new terminations can lead to compatibility issues, causing network failures.
NEW QUESTION # 53
Which of the following 802.11 standards was developed to use 6GHz band and wider 320MHz channel bandwidth?
- A. 802.11ac
- B. 802.11g
- C. 802.11ax
- D. 802.11be
Answer: D
Explanation:
802.11be (Wi-Fi 7) introduces support for the 6GHz band with very wide channels up to 320MHz, enabling significantly higher throughput and performance.
NEW QUESTION # 54
A network technician needs to resolve some issues with a customer's SOHO network. The customer reports that some of the PCs are not connecting to the network, while others appear to be working as intended.
INSTRUCTIONS
Troubleshoot all the network components.
Review the cable test results first, then diagnose by clicking on the appropriate PC, server, and Layer 2 switch.
Identify any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer and solution below:
Explanation:
A computer network diagram with many boxes and text AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 55
An investment bank is seeking a DR backup solution. Which of the following provides the most cost-effective backup site?
- A. Cold
- B. Warm
- C. Hot
- D. Cluster
Answer: A
Explanation:
Cold sites are the most cost-effective disaster recovery (DR) option since they require the least infrastructure investment. They provide space and power but no pre-configured systems.
NEW QUESTION # 56
Which of the following types of network architecture typically uses leased lines to provide dedicated, private connections between multiple satellite offices and a head office?
- A. Star
- B. Hub and spoke
- C. Mesh
- D. Point to point
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is hub-and-spoke. In this design, the head office serves as the hub, and all satellite or branch offices (the spokes) connect directly to the hub using leased lines or VPNs. Communication between spokes typically passes through the hub, which centralizes connectivity and simplifies management.
A . Mesh involves every site connecting to every other site, which is more redundant but costly.
B . Point-to-point describes a single dedicated link between two sites, not a multi-site topology.
D . Star is often used in LAN switching, with all devices connecting to a central switch, but it's not the WAN architecture typically used here.
Hub-and-spoke is a cost-effective WAN design, as fewer circuits are needed compared to full mesh. However, its main disadvantage is reliance on the hub site: if the hub goes down, inter-spoke communication fails.
NEW QUESTION # 57
Which of the following should a network technician do to maintain remote administrative redundancy if a switch becomes unresponsive through SSH?
- A. Use an out-of-band management solution
- B. Enable an administrative GUI
- C. Connect a physical console cable
- D. Deploy a jump host
Answer: A
Explanation:
An out-of-band management solution is the best answer because it provides an alternate administrative path to network equipment when the normal production network path is unavailable. If a switch becomes unresponsive through SSH, the technician needs a separate management method that does not depend on the same in-band network connectivity. Out-of-band management can use a dedicated management network, console server, cellular connection, modem, or management interface to reach devices during outages or configuration failures.
The CompTIA Network+ N10-009 objectives include network operations, device management, availability, and remote access methods. SSH is an in-band management method when accessed over the production network. If routing, VLANs, ACLs, management services, or switch control-plane functions are affected, SSH may fail. Out-of-band access improves administrative redundancy and supports recovery.
A jump host can centralize administrative access, but it still depends on network connectivity to the switch.
An administrative GUI may also fail if management access is unavailable. A physical console cable can work locally, but the question specifically asks for remote administrative redundancy. Therefore, an out-of-band management solution is the best answer.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following does a full-tunnel VPN provide?
- A. Corporate Inspection of all networktraffic
- B. Lower bandwidth requirements
- C. The ability to reset local computer passwords
- D. Access to blocked sites
Answer: A
Explanation:
A full-tunnel VPN routes all of a user's network traffic through the corporate network. This means that the organization can inspect all network traffic for security and compliance purposes, as all data is tunneled through the VPN, allowing for comprehensive monitoring and inspection.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 59
An administrator needs to configure an IoT device with a /21 subnet mask, but the device will only accept dotted decimal notation. Which of the following subnet masks should the administrator use?
- A. 255.255.252.0
- B. 255.255.248.0
- C. 255.255.240.0
- D. 255.255.224.0
Answer: B
Explanation:
A /21 mask uses 21 network bits; in dotted decimal that is 255.255.248.0 (the third octet has five
1s: 11111000 = 248).
NEW QUESTION # 60
A network administrator is planning to implement device monitoring to enhance network visibility.
The security that the solution provies authentication and encryption. Which of the following meets these requirements?
- A. SIEM
- B. NetFlow
- C. SNMPv3
- D. Syslog
Answer: C
Explanation:
SNMPv3 (Simple Network Management Protocol version 3) provides device monitoring with authentication and encryption. This enhances network visibility and security by ensuring that monitoring data is securely transmitted and access to network devices is authenticated.
Authentication: SNMPv3 includes robust mechanisms for authenticating users accessing network devices.
Encryption: It provides encryption to protect the integrity and confidentiality of the data being transmitted.
Network Management: SNMPv3 allows for detailed monitoring and management of network devices, ensuring better control and security.
NEW QUESTION # 61
A network administrator is connecting two Layer 2 switches in a network. These switches must transfer data in multiple networks. Which of the following would fulfill this requirement?
- A. 802.1Q tagging
- B. Link aggregation
- C. Jumbo frames
- D. Native VLAN
Answer: A
Explanation:
802.1Q tagging, also known as VLAN tagging, is used to identify VLANs on a trunk link between switches. This allows the switches to transfer data for multiple VLANs (or networks) over a single physical connection. This method ensures that traffic from different VLANs is properly separated and managed across the network.Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 62
A newtwork administrator needs to create an SVI on a Layer 3-capable device to separate voice and data traffic. Which of the following best explains this use case?
- A. A logical interface used when the number of physical ports is insufficent.
- B. A logical interface used for the routing of VLANs
- C. A physical interface used for trunking logical ports
- D. A physical interface used for management access
Answer: B
Explanation:
An SVI (Switched Virtual Interface) is a logical interface on a Layer 3-capable switch used to route traffic between VLANs. This is particularly useful in environments where voice and data traffic need to be separated, as each type of traffic can be assigned to different VLANs and routed accordingly.
SVI (Switched Virtual Interface): A virtual interface created on a switch for inter-VLAN routing.
VLAN Routing: Enables the routing of traffic between VLANs on a Layer 3 switch, allowing for logical separation of different types of traffic, such as voice and data.
Use Case: Commonly used in scenarios where efficient and segmented traffic management is required, such as in VoIP implementations.
NEW QUESTION # 63
A company's network is experiencing high levels of suspicious network traffic. The security team finds that the traffic is coming from an unknown, foreign IP address. Which of the following is the most cost-efficient way to mitigate this threat?
- A. DoS prevention
- B. NAT
- C. ACL
- D. IDS
Answer: C
Explanation:
An ACL can cost-effectively block traffic from a specific foreign IP address at the network edge, immediately stopping the unwanted traffic without requiring additional security appliances.
NEW QUESTION # 64
A network architect needs to create a wireless field network to provide reliable service to public safety vehicles. Which of the following types of networks is the best solution?
- A. Ad hoc
- B. Infrastructure
- C. Mesh
- D. Point-to-point
Answer: C
Explanation:
A mesh network is the best solution for providing reliable wireless service to public safety vehicles. In a mesh network, each node (vehicle) can connect to multiple other nodes, providing multiple paths for data to travel. This enhances reliability and redundancy, ensuring continuous connectivity even if one or more nodes fail. Mesh networks are highly resilient and are well-suited for dynamic and mobile environments such as public safety operations.Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
NEW QUESTION # 65
A network technician needs to resolve some issues with a customer's SOHO network.
The customer reports that some of the devices are not connecting to the network, while others appear to work as intended.
INSTRUCTIONS
Troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results by Clicking on each device and cable.
Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem.
Cable Test Results:
Cable 1:
Cable 2:
Cable 3:
Cable 4:
Answer:
Explanation:
See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation.
Explanation:
(Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results, you can use the following steps:
Click on each device and cable to open its information window.
Review the information and identify any problems or errors that may affect the network connectivity or performance.
Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem.
Fill in the remediation form using the drop-down menus provided.
Here is an example of how to fill in the remediation form for PC1:
The component with a problem is PC1.
The problem is Incorrect IP address.
The solution is Change the IP address to 192.168.1.10.
You can use the same steps to fill in the remediation form for other components.
To enter commands in each device, you can use the following steps:
Click on the device to open its terminal window.
Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of the device, including its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.
Enter the command ping <IP address> to test the connectivity and reachability to another device on the network by sending and receiving echo packets. Replace <IP address> with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch 1.
Enter the command tracert <IP address> to trace the route and measure the latency of packets from the device to another device on the network by sending and receiving packets with increasing TTL values. Replace <IP address> with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch 1.
Here is an example of how to enter commands in PC1:
Click on PC1 to open its terminal window.
Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of PC1. You should see that PC1 has an incorrect IP address of 192.168.2.10, which belongs to VLAN 2 instead of VLAN 1.
Enter the command ping 192.168.1.1 to test the connectivity to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable to ping Core Switch 1 because they are on different subnets.
Enter the command tracert 192.168.1.1 to trace the route to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable to reach Core Switch 1 because there is no route between them.
You can use the same steps to enter commands in other devices, such as PC3, PC4, PC5, and Server 1.
NEW QUESTION # 66
Which of the following uses the longest prefix match to determine an exit interface?
- A. MAC address table
- B. Routing table
- C. Netstat table
- D. ARP table
Answer: B
Explanation:
The longest prefix match is a routing concept used to find the most specific route to a destination IP address.
The routing table performs this calculation to determine the exit interface for a packet, ensuring the most accurate delivery. The document explains:
"Routers use the longest prefix match when searching the routing table to determine the best path for an IP packet. This ensures that the most specific (and thus optimal) route is chosen, based on the destination IP address."
NEW QUESTION # 67
After a networking intern plugged in a switch, a significant number of users in a building lost connectivity. Which of the following is the most likely root cause?
- A. LLDP misconfiguration
- B. Port security issue
- C. Native VLAN mismatch
- D. VTP update
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a VTP domain, switches share VLAN information based on a revision number. If an intern plugs in a "new" (or repurposed) switch that has a higher revision number and is set to Server mode, it will advertise its VLAN database to the rest of the network.
If that switch has no VLANs configured (or a different set), every other switch in the domain will overwrite their own databases to match it. This effectively deletes the production VLANs, causing almost everyone to lose connectivity because their ports no longer belong to a valid VLAN.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following routing protocols uses an autonomous system number?
- A. IS-IS
- B. OSPF
- C. EIGRP
- D. BGP
Answer: D
Explanation:
BGP (Border Gateway Protocol) uses an Autonomous System (AS) number for its operations. An AS is a collection of IP networks and routers under the control of a single organization that presents a common routing policy to the Internet. BGP is used to exchange routing information between different ASes on the Internet, making it the only protocol among the listed options that uses an AS number.References:CompTIA Network+ study materials and RFC 4271.
NEW QUESTION # 69
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