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Symantec 250-550 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION 11
What characterizes an emerging threat in comparison to traditional threat?
- A. Emerging threats are undetectable by signature based engines.
- B. Emerging threats are more sophisticated than traditional threats.
- C. Emerging threats use new techniques and 0-day vulnerability to propagate.
- D. Emerging threats requires artificial intelligence to be detected.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 12
Which device page should an administrator view to track the progress of an issued device command?
- A. Activity Update
- B. Command History
- C. Recent Activity
- D. Command Status
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 13
What are two (2) benefits of a fully cloud managed endpoint protection solution? (Select two)
- A. Reduced 3rd party licensing cost
- B. Reduced network usage
- C. Increased visibility
- D. Increased content update frequency
- E. Reduced database usage
Answer: A,E
NEW QUESTION 14
Which security control is complementary to IPS, providing a second layer of protection against network attacks?
- A. Host Integrity
- B. Firewall
- C. Antimalware
- D. Network Protection
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 15
Files are blocked by hash in the blacklist policy.
Which algorithm is supported, in addition to MD5?
- A. MD5 "Salted"
- B. SHA2
- C. SHA256
- D. SHA256 "salted"
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 16
Which default role has the most limited permission in the Integrated Cyber Defense Manager?
- A. Restricted Administrator
- B. Limited Administrator
- C. Server Administrator
- D. Endpoint Console Domain Administrator
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 17
Which security threat uses malicious code to destroy evidence, break systems, or encrypt data?
- A. Discovery
- B. Persistence
- C. Execution
- D. Impact
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 18
Which Antimalware technology is used after all local resources have been exhausted?
- A. ITCS
- B. Reputation
- C. Sapient
- D. Emulator
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 19
Which term or expression is utilized when adversaries leverage existing tools in the environment?
- A. file-less attack
- B. script kiddies
- C. opportunistic attack
- D. living off the land
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 20
Which dashboard should an administrator access to view the current health of the environment?
- A. The SES Dashboard
- B. The Antimalware Dashboard
- C. The Device Integrity Dashboard
- D. The Security Control Dashboard
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 21
Which SES advanced feature detects malware by consulting a training model composed of known good and known bad fries?
- A. Advanced Machine Learning
- B. Reputation
- C. Artificial Intelligence
- D. Signatures
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 22
Which framework, open and available to any administrator, is utilized to categorize adversarial tactics and for each phase of a cyber attack?
- A. MITRE RESPONSE
- B. MITRE ATT&CK
- C. MITRE ATTACK MATRIX
- D. MITRE ADV&NCE
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 23
Which file property does SES utilize to search the VirusTotal website for suspicious file information?
- A. File reputation
- B. File size
- C. File name
- D. File hash
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 24
Which Firewall Stealth setting prevents OS fingerprinting by sending erroneous OS information back to the attacker?
- A. Disable OS fingerprint profiling
- B. Enable OS fingerprint protection
- C. Disable OS fingerprint detection
- D. Enable OS fingerprint masqueradi
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 25
Why would an administrator choose the Server-optimized installation option when creating an installation package?
- A. To add the SES client's Optimize Memory setting to the default server installation.
- B. To reduce the SES client's using resources that are required for other server-specific processes.
- C. To limit the Intrusion Prevention policy to use server-only signatures.
- D. To add the Server-optimized Firewall policy
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 26
In the ICDm, administrators are assisted by the My Task view. Which automation type creates the tasks within the console?
- A. Artificial Intelligence
- B. Advanced Machine Learning
- C. Administrator defined rules
- D. Machine Learning
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 27
After editing and saving a policy, an administrator is prompted with the option to apply the edited policy to any assigned device groups.
What happens to the new version of the policy if the administrator declines the option to apply it?
- A. An unassigned version of the policy is created
- B. The new version of the policy is deleted
- C. The policy display is returned to edit mode
- D. The new version of the policy is added to the "in progress" list
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 28
Which two (2) Discovery and Deploy features could an administrator use to enroll MAC endpoints? (Select two)
- A. Push Enroll
- B. A custom Installation package creator pact
- C. A custom Direct installation package
- D. Invite User
- E. A default Direct Installation package
Answer: B,C
NEW QUESTION 29
Which option should an administrator utilize to temporarily or permanently block a file?
- A. Blacklist
- B. Encrypt
- C. Delete
- D. Hide
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 30
Which report template includes a summary of risk distribution by devices, users, and groups?
- A. Comprehensive
- B. Device Integrity
- C. Threat Distribution
- D. Weekly
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 31
Which two (2) skill areas are critical to the success of incident Response Teams (Select two)
- A. Project Management
- B. Incident Management
- C. Cyber Intelligence
- D. Threat Analysis
- E. Incident Response
Answer: C,E
NEW QUESTION 32
Which URL is responsible for notifying the SES agent that a policy change occurred in the cloud console?
- A. stnd-ipsg.crsi-symantec.com
- B. spoc.norton.com
- C. ent-shasta.rrs-symantec.com
- D. ocsp.digicert.com
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 33
What option must an administrator choose when rolling back a policy assignment to a previous version?
- A. Reverse
- B. Customize
- C. Go Back
- D. Override
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 34
What is the primary issue pertaining to managing roaming users while utilizing an on-premise solution?
- A. The endpoint fails to receive content update
- B. The endpoint is absent of the management console
- C. The endpoint is missing timely policy update
- D. The endpoint is more exposed to threats
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 35
Which two (2) scan range options are available to an administrator for locating unmanaged endpoints? (Select two)
- A. IP range within subnet
- B. IP range within network
- C. Entire Network
- D. Entire Subnet
- E. Subnet Range
Answer: B,E
NEW QUESTION 36
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